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SECTION 1

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LISTENING COMPREHENSION

In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand conversation and talks in English. There are three parts to this section with special directions for each part. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by speakers in this test. Do not turn the pages until you are told to do so Part A Direction : In part A, you will hear short coversation between two people. After each conversation, you will hear a question about the conversation. The conversations and question will not be repeated. After you hear a question, read the four posible answer in your test book and choose the best answer. Then, on your answers sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that correspons to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Here is an example. On the recording you hear: Sample Answer B

In your test book, you read :

C

(A) He does not like the painting either. (B) He does not know how to paint. (C) He does not have any paintings. (D) He does not know what to do.

You learn from the conversation that neither the man nor the wonan likes the painting. The best answer to the questation “What does the man mean?” is (A), “He does not like the painting either. “Therefore, the correct choice is (A)

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1. (A) He is not worried about his

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6. (A) His flight took three hours. (B) His flight arrived late. (C) Emma had a long drive to the airport (D) Emma had trouble finding the airport

Scheduled class work (B) He will help the woman catch Up with the class. (C) The woman did not miss any of

7. (A) They should wait for him. (B) They should go without him. (C) He will try to join them later. (D) They should bring him some pizza

The homwork. (D) The woman will have a problem Making up the work bay the due

8. (A) She will request more time to finish the project. (B) She will help the man to finish his project. (C) She finished her project in two weeks. (D) She is almost finished working on her project

Date.

2. (A) She does not know many artists. (B) She does not know much

9. (A) He cannot go to the art exhibit. (B) He will introduce the woman to the people in his class. (C) He plans to take the same painting cals as the woman. (D) He needs directions to the art exhibit.

About art. (C) She admires the man’s art. (D) She likes many artists.

3. (A) He expects to sell all of the

10. (A) She skipped some of the intructions in the recipe. (B) She bought the pie. (C) She will give the recipe to the man later. (D) She does not think the pie tastes good.

calculators soon. (B) The woman should look in a difference section of the store. (C) The store does not have any calculators to sell now. (D) Calculators are on sale this week

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4. (A) She cannot work on Fridays (B) She is not available to work before six-thirty on Fridays (C) She needs to leave work early on Friday (D) Her class on Fridays has been canceled

5. (A) He will be studying tomorrow. (B) He will see the game at night. (C) He does not like baseball. (D) He has a ticket for the game.

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11. (A) He has to meet with his professor soon. (B) He enjoyed the photography club meeting. (C) He was with his professor during the club meeting. (D) He was looking for the meeting place.

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16. (A) He was not sick. (B) He refuses to take medicine. (C) He is feeling much better. (D) He is at the health center now. 17. (A) She will help the man find his library card. (B) She does not have a library car (C) She is not sure if she can borrow materials for the man. (D) She has the journals the man needs at her home.

12. (A) He plans to visit more national parks (B) He wanted to go but could not (C) The park was very crowded (D) The park was better than he expected.

18. (A) It is not her favorite shirt. (B) The shirt was a gift. (C) She went on vacation with her sister 3

13. (A) Leave work earlier (B) Join a different fitness center (C) Go to the fitness center in the morning (D) Use a different parking lot

(D) The shirt belongs to her sister. 19. (A) Ed is happy with his job. (B) Ed is not as good a worked as the boss thinks. (C) The boss plans to give Ed a raise in salary. (D) The boss has not treated Ed Well

14. (A) She is also sad that he professor is retiring. (B) She has taken many of the professor’s classes. (C) She knows why the professor is retiring. (D) She doubts that the professor is lanning to retire.

20. (A) Change the time on his watch. (B) Tell the woman what time it is (C) Take the woman’s watch to a repair shop. (D) Help the woman buy a watch.

15. (A) He needs the woman’s help. (B) He will complete the report when the complete the report. (C) The report was much longer than he thought it would be. (D) The report was finished a couple of days ago.

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21. (A) She disagrees with the man’s opinion. (B) She listens to the show’s music regulary. (C) She did not attend the performance. (D) She preferred the slow songs.

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26. (A) He may apply for a job at the bookstore. (B) His friends need to buy something at the bookstore (C) He will give the woman a ride to the bookstore (D) He will be too busy to work at the bookstore

22. (A) He paid a higher fee than the woman did. (B) He understands why his phone bill increased. (C) He did not receive his phone bill this month. (D) He paid the same amount as he did the previous mount.

27. (A) She will not be a candidate in the election (B) She has to quit her job. (C) She could not attend the student council meeting. (D) She plans to take fewer classes.

23. (A) She is neater than the woman’s previous roommate.

28. (A) He has to go to eye doctor . (B) He has a new style of glasses. 4

(B) She does not like the woman’s last rommate. (C) She does not like to clean. (D) She will probably move soon.

(C) He lost one of his contact lenses. (D) He rarely wears his glasses.

24. (A) He does not know much about lab reports. (B) He can meet with the woman later (C) He thinks the lab report needs work. (D) He cannot help the woman. 25. (A) Listen to a weather report (B) Decide whether to cancel the trip (C) Schedule the trip for a later date (D) Ask other students for their opinion about the trips

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29. (A) Watch the news on TV. (B) Turn the TV on at six o’clock. (C) Turn the TV off in a few minutes. (D) Watch another comedyy show 30. (A) Tell her which evening the professor will come. (B) Pay for the professor’s meal ahead of time. (C) Find out the evening schedule of the dining hall. (D) Find out which students will attend.

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Part B Direction : In this part of the test, you will hear longer conversations. After each conversation, you will hear serveral questions. The conversation and questions will not be repeated. After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space correnponds to the letter of the answer your have chosen.

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31 . (A) A famous poet. (B) Research the man is doing for a paper. (C) How to get help at the library. (D) The man’s new job.

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32. (A) He puts them back on the shelves. (B) He repairs damage to their pages and covers. (C) He enters information about them in the computer. (D) He brings them to the front desk. 33. (A) He talks to his friends. (B) He does his homework. (C) He plays computer games. (D) He meets a lot of new people. 34. (A) His boss can talk with her about a job 6

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(A) Reasons that theater attendance has recently increased. (B) Tecniques used to generate public interest in a production. (C) Why shakespeare’s plays attract a large audience. (D) Modern productions of plays written long ago. 36. (A) Play wrights and actors spoke about their plays. (B) Pictorial advertisement were posted throughout the city. (C) Audience members gathered to eat. (D) Advertisements were printed in newspaper. 37. (A) Actorsperformed short scenes

(B) His boss can help her find books for her research paper. (C) His boss knows a lot about Emily Dickinson. (D) His boss wants to hear student’s comment about the library’s service.

downtown for free. (B) Announcements were made in public squares. (C) Flags were raised to attract attention. (D) Advertainsements were printed in newspaper. 38. (A) It has decreased due to improvements in tecnology. (B) It may force some theaters to close down. (C) It has become an important part of running a successful theater. (D) It will probably not increase much in the near future.

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Part C Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear several short talks. After each talk, you will hear some questions. The talks and the questions will not be repeated. After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Here is an example. On the recording, you hear: Now listen to a sample question. Sample Answer 7

A

B

D

In your test book, you read:

(A) To demonstrate the latest use of computer graphics (B) To discuss the possibility of an economic depression (C) To explain the workings of the brain (D) To dramatize a famous mystery story

The best answer to the question "What is the main purpose of the program?" is (C), "TO explain the workings of the brain." Therefore, the correct choice is (C). Now listen to another sample question. Sample Answer A

In your test book, you read:

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B

(A) It is required of all science majors, (B) It will feature the professor's research. (C) It can help viewers improve their memory skills. (D) It will help with course work.

The best answer to the question “Why does the professor recommend watching the program?" is (D), “It will help with course work." Therefore, the correct choice is (D).

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39. (A) The formation of asteroids and meteorites in space (B) The discovery and origin of space diamonds (C) The process by which diamonds form on Earth (D) Various potential uses for space diamonds

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43. (A) The cost of analyzing productdesigns (B) Designing products so they are easy to use (C) Redesigning old products for new uses (D) Psychological aspects of consumer spending

40. (A) They could not cut through it. (B) They could not x-ray it. 8

(C) They could not determine its composition. (D) They could not move it.

44. (A) The accuracy of some of theirinstruments (B) The layout of their instruments (C) The type of training they received (D) The complexity of their flight routes

41. (A) Space diamonds are very expensive. (B) Space diamonds are very beautiful. (C) Space diamonds are smaller than regular diamonds. (D) Space diamonds are commonly found on Earth.

45. (A) Increased employee loyalty (B) Reduced marketing costs (C) Increased product sales. (D) Improved efficiency in factories

42. (A) Deep in Earth's crust (B) On the ocean floor (C) In volcanic rock (D) In meteor craters

46. (A) It was too small for most cups. (B) It did not hold cups securely. (C) It interfered with access to the radio. (D) It was too far from the driver.

47. (A) They were very expensive. (B) They were unattractive. (C) They were designed by a psychologist. (D) They were often difficult to use.

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48. (A) Why early societies needed to measure time

50. (A) Its design changed around 1500 B.C.E.

(B) Similarities between obelisks and sundials

(B) Its usefulness was limited. (C) It was very precise when used along with a water clock.

(C) The evolution of early timekeeping devices

(D) It was less accurate than the water clock.

(D) A new theory about early timekeeping devices

49. (A) They were used to predict the Sun's path across the sky. (B) They were more accurate in morning than in afternoon." (C) They were invented around the same time. (D) They only worked on sunny days.

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Section 2 Structure and Written Expression Time: 25 minutes

This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate for standard written English. There are two types of questions in this section, with special directions for each type. Structure Directions: Questions 1-15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see four words or phrases, marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Example I

Sample Answer A

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Geysers have often been compared to volcanoes ------- they both emit hot liquids from below Earth's surface. (A) despite (B) because (C) in regard to (D) as a result of The sentence should read, “Geysers have often been compared to volcanoes because they both emit hot liquids from below Earth's surface." Therefore, you should choose (B). Example II

Sample Answer A

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During the early period of ocean navigation -----any need for sophisticated instruments and techniques. (A) so that hardly (B) when there hardly was (C) hardly was (D) there was hardly The sentence should read, “During the early period of ocean navigation, there was hardly any need for sophisticated instruments and techniques.” Therefore, you should choose (D). Now begin work on the questions. 11

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1. The wood of the black cherry tree, ------- to North America, has a reddish brown color and a warm luster when finished.

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5. About two and a half million yearsago, early humans started ------- use basic tools, such as hand axes, (A) making (B) to make (C) to make and (D) and making to

(A) which is native (B) which it is native (C) native of which (D) that which, being native

6. ------- human tongue has about10,000 nerve endings, known as taste buds, embedded in its surface.

2. In 1983 astronaut Sally Ride became ------- from the United States to travel into space.

(A) In (B) The (C) In the (D) There are in the

(A) she was the first woman (B) the first woman was (C) of the first woman (D) the first woman

7. Hares generally have longer earsand hind legs than rabbits and move by jumping ------running.

3. When -------, the electrons in their outer rings are exchanged or shared. (A) do atoms join (B) two joining atoms (C) two atoms join (D) joint atoms

(A) rather to be (B) rather than (C) are rather (D) as rather

4. Just as remote-controlled satellites can be employed to explore outer space, -------employed to investigate the deep sea.

8. Article 2 of the United StatesConstitution, modified by the Twelfth Amendment, specifies ------(A) how the President andVice President are to beselected (B) the President and Vice President how to be selected (C) the selection of President andVice President is (D) how are the President andVice President to be selected

(A) can be robots (B) robots can be (C) can robots (D) can robots that are

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9. An affidavit is a written statementused mostly in lawsuits to lay necessary facts before courts ------- no formal oral evidence is required.

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13. The introduction of center-pivotirrigation devices in the 1970s ------- the cultivation of lands in Nebraska that previously could not be irrigated.

(A) where is (B) where (C) where there is (D) is

(A) was possible (B) it became possible (C) made it possible (D) made possible

10. In Earth's infancy, its surfacewas warm enough for life ------ the young Sun was fainter than it is today.

14. In neither of the two types of Cubistpainting ------- to reproduce in detail the appearance of natural objects.

(A) in spite of (B) whether (C) neither of which (D) even though

(A) any attempt is there (B) is there any attempt (C) in which there is any attempt (D) there is any attempt

11. The novelist John Dos Passosdeveloped a 15. ------- 2,500 federal libraries style of fiction incorporating several andinformation centers are located in documentary devices ------- to his works. United States government offices and in independent agencies. (A) lent realism (A) More (B) that lending realism (B) More of (C) to lend realism (C) The more that (D) of whose realism lent (D) More than 12. Before the Europeans arrived,American Indians were using virgin copper ------into ornaments, knives, and other artifacts. (A) which was hammering (B) which hammered (C) was hammered (D) hammered

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the nage

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Written Expression Directions: In questions 16-40 each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Example I

Sample Answer

Guppies are sometimes call rainbow fish due to the A B bright colors of the males. C D The sentence should read, “Guppies are sometimes called rainbow fish due to the bright colors of the males." Therefore, you should choose (A). Example II

Sample Answer

Serving several term in the United States Congress, A B Shirley Chisholm became a respected political figure. C D The sentence should read, “Serving several terms in the United States Congress, Shirley Chisholm became a respected political figure." Therefore, you should choose (B). Now begin work on the questions.

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the nage

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16. Throughout her life, Edith Wharton produced more than fifty volumes of fiction, A B C poetry, and another writings. D 17. Georgia O'Keeffe is known for hers use of organic, abstract forms painted in clear, A B C strong colors. D 18. Researchers have found subtle neurological differences between the brains of men A B and women either in physical structure and in the way they function. C D 19. Between 1905 and 1907, floodwaters from the Colorado River poured into a A B C salt-covered depression and creating the Salton Sea. D 20. Styles of social dancing vary with the changes in fashion, manners, and musically of a A B C D given period. 21. Although complete paralysis is rare with neuritis, some degree of muscle A B C weakness common. D 22. One kind of discourse structure is based on the fact that people takes turns speaking A

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in most kinds of interaction. D 23. Unlike fantasy stories, which deal with events impossible, science fiction describes A

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events that could actually occur according to accepted or likely scientific theories. D 24. A uniform mingling of molecules, which it occurs in homogeneous chemical 15

A compounds, results from the chemical constituents melting, dissolving, or diffusing B C into one another. D 25. First reported by Spanish explorers in 1769, the asphalt in California's A B La Brea Tar Pit was mined commercial for many years. C D

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26. The Progressive Movement is an umbrella term refer to a number of reform efforts A B C that emerged in the early 1900s. D 27. The food and water that people consume them come from the environment, provided A B either by nature or through the work of farmers and other producers. C D 28. Atoms form the building blocks for everything in universe. A B C D 29. Because of the need to maintain the correct balance of salts and minerals in the A B water, keeping saltwater fish in aquariums requires more work that keeping C D Fresh water fish. 30. The conceptual of musical harmony is generally traced to the ninth century because A B C it is first mentioned in treatises of that period. D 31. One of the major branches of the discipline of philosophy is ethics, the study of the A B types, sources, and justifies of moral values and principles. C D 32. During Arkansas was admitted to the United States as the twenty-fifth state in A B June 1836, it had barely the required minimum of 50,000 residents. C D 33. The most important parameters affecting a rocket's maximum flight velocity A is the relationship between the vehicle's mass and the amount of propellant B C it can carry. D 34. Mitosis is the normal process by which a cell divides, each new cell ending up with A B C 16

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a same number of chromosomes as the parent cell. D 35. In addition to their usefulness as scavengers, birds are of enormous value to humans A B because of they eat insects and control the spread of weeds. C D

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36. Licorice has long been used to treat sore throats and is often added to medicine to A B C mask disagreeably tastes. D 37. In artifacts from as early as the Stone Age, mathematics and art can be seen A to have fused in the geometric patterns decorate pottery, weaving, and carpentry. B C D 38. After his death, Jackson Pollock came to be recognized as a significant influenced A B on American art, having opened new boundaries of texture, line, and expression. C D 39. Atypical orb-weaving spider, the garden cross spider products six different kinds A B C of silk from its posterior ducts. D 40. Much of California's coastline is rocky and rugged, such as in region just north of A B C San Luis Obispo, but Southern California has numerous large sand beaches. D

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Section 3

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Reading Comprehension Time: 55 minutes

Directions: In this section you will read several passages. Each one is followed by several questions about it. For questions 1-50, you are to choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), or (D), to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage. Read the following passage:

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The railroad was not the first institution to impose regularity on society, or to draw attention to the importance of precise timekeeping. For as long as merchants have set out their wares at daybreak and communal festivities have been celebrated, Line people have been in rough agreement with their neighbors as to the time of day. The value of this tradition is today more apparent than ever. Were it not for public acceptance of a single yardstick of time, social life would be unbearably chaotic: the massive daily transfers of goods, services, and information would proceed in fits and starts; the very fabric of modern society would begin to unravel. Example 1

Sample Answer

C D B A What is the main idea of the passage? (A) In modern society we must make more time for our neighbors. (B) The traditions of society are timeless. (C) An accepted way of measuring time is essential for the smooth functioning of society, (D) Society judges people by the times at which they conduct certain activities. The main idea of the passage is that societies need to agree about how time is to be measured in order to function smoothly. Therefore, you should choose (C).

Example II

Sample Answer A 18

B

C

In line 5, the phrase "this tradition” refers to (A) the practice of starting the business day at dawn (B) friendly relations between neighbors (C)the railroad's reliance on time schedules (D) people's agreement on the measurement of time The phrase "this tradition” refers to the preceding clause, "people have been in rough agreement with their neighbors as to the time of day.” Therefore, you should choose (D). Now begin work on the questions.

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Questions 1 - 9 Earth holds only a finite amount of water, and virtually all the water now at Earth's surface has been there almost since the planet was born, yet it never seems to run out.

Line 5

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The ever-filled purse that represents our water resource comes about because water, Line like rock, moves through cycles, constantly being used, constantly being replenished. Any water that might have been on Earth's surface when it first cooled off would probably have been blown off by the impact of meteorites or the solar wind-the intense stream of particles emitted by the newborn Sun. The water that now fills the oceans, as well as the gases that make up the atmosphere, must have waited out this early violent period in our planet's history safely stored in solid rock. Only later did 10 they come to the surface through volcanic activity. Oceans and atmospheres are not an inevitable consequence of planet formation. Smaller worlds, like Mercury and the Moon, are too small to retain any surface fluids. Fast-moving gas molecules like water vapor, nitrogen, or oxygen gradually escape the

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weak gravitational pull of these bodies. If Earth had been much smaller, there would 15 have been no oceans and no life to enjoy them. Our planetary reservoir holds almost 500 billion gallons of surface water in its oceans, lakes, rivers, ice caps, groundwater, and atmosphere. An unknown (but probably larger) amount is locked up in minerals in the crust and mantle layers of

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Earth, though this bound water is obviously not readily available for human use. The 20 oceans account for more than 97 percent of the vast surface-water budget and an 19

additional two percent is frozen in ice caps and glaciers, leaving less than one percent as usable freshwater. These percentages may change slightly, for example during ice ages, but freshwater will never account for more than a small fraction of the total supply. 25

The most familiar illustrations of the water cycle depict water evaporating from the oceans forming clouds that rain on the land, and finally collecting in streams and rivers that return to the sea. This simple water cycle, which takes a few weeks or months to complete, is certainly a part of the story, but the complete cycle is much more complex.

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1. The word "it" in line 2 refers to

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6. The phrase "account for” in line 20 is closest in meaning to

(A) Earth (A) make up (B) water (B) ensure that (C) surface (C) depend on (D) planet (D) determine that 2. The word "resource” in line 3 is closest in meaning to

7. Approximately how much of Earth's surface water is frozen?

(A) supply

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(B) use

(A) More than 97 percent

(C) management

(B) Approximately 2 percent

(D) requirement

(C) Less than 1 percent (D) More than 500 billion gallons

3. According to the first paragraph, water and rock are alike in that they both (A) have similar chemical compositions

8. The word "depict” in line 25 is closest in meaning to

(B) exist on all planets

(A) start with

(C) are available in almost unlimited quantities

(B) suggest (C) show

(D) are regularly used and replenished (D) leave out 9. The author arranges the description of the water cycle in the fifth paragraph according to the

4. The word "retain" in line 12 is closest in meaning to

(A) order in which the events of the cycle occur

(A) create

(B) level of importance of the events of the cycle

(B) keep (C) release

(C) effect the cycle has on the overall amount of water

(D) change

5. The amount of water contained in minerals in Earth's crust and mantle is likely to be (A) less than 500 billion gallons (B) greater than the amount of surface water (C) equal to the amount of water available for humans to use (D) less than the amount frozen in ice caps and glaciers

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(D) time it takes to complete the steps in the cycle

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Questions 10-20 During the 1880s and 1890s, modern mass-circulation magazines came into being in the United States. For the author they provided an important outlet for work and a

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major source of income. Before 1880, serious authors had only a few respectable Line magazines in which they could publish-Scribner's, Harper's, the Century, and three or four others. Such magazines were usually allied with book publishing firms and addressed a relatively well-educated audience. They tended, in editorial philosophy, to pattern themselves after such British models as Blackwood's, the Edinburgh Review, and the Fortnightly. In the 1890s and early 1900s, however, editors and publishers in

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the United States began to produce mass-circulation magazines for a vast middle-class readership that previously had not been addressed successfully. Advances in printing technology-especially in the reproduction of illustrations-made it possible to manufacture visually attractive magazines in huge printing runs and to price them at ten or fifteen cents, well within reach of these new audiences. During this same time period, the United States was making the final transition from a largely agricultural

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economy to a predominantly industrial one. Urbanization, growth in average income, better public education, and an increase in leisure time combined to produce a ready audience for magazines that published popular fiction and articles of general interest. During the first half of the twentieth century, authors in the United States could publish stories and serialize novels in an unprecedented number and variety of such magazines. The great boom in national retailing and the growing importance of brand-name products made mass-circulation magazines the ideal advertising medium for business. Indeed, it was the partnership between advertising and magazines that made possible the enormous growth of the periodical industry in the United States. Magazine publishers could sell their magazines for less than production costs and still take

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substantial profits from advertising revenues. A publisher had to devise an editorial philosophy that would appeal to a particular body of readers and acquire material to fit that philosophy. Then advertising space had to be sold to advertisers who wanted to present their products to that segment of the retail market.

10. What does the passage mainly discuss? (A) The connection between book-publishing firms and mass-circulation magazines 22

11. The phrase "allied with” in line 5 is closest in meaning to

(B) Improvements in the technology of magazine printing (C) The development of mass-circulation magazines in the United States (D) The effects of advertising on publishing in the United States

(A) resulted from (B) linked to (C) consisted of (D) agreed with

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12. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that magazines in the United States

17. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?

(A) often originated in Britain

(A) The cost of advertising increases the price of magazines.

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(B) resembled books in appearance (B) The book-publishing industry was harmed by the expansion of the magazine industry.

(C) often had articles about agriculture (D) had a relatively small circulation before 1880

(C) A magazine's editorial philosophy was not considered important by advertisers. (D) Mass-circulation magazines are more likely to exist in an industrial society than in an agricultural society.

13. The word “them" in line 12 refers to (A) editors and publishers (B) advances

18. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a factor in the growth of the magazine industry in the second paragraph?

(C) illustrations (D) magazines

(A) The partnership between advertising and magazines 14. Advances in printing technology allowed publishers to produce magazines that (A) had more pictures than text

(B) The growing importance of brand-name products (C) The ability to deliver magazines to

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(B) weighed less and were easier to ship

people's homes

(C) were attractive as well as affordable

(D) The expansion of national Retailing

(D) were longer and more complete The questions for this passage 19. The word “devise” in line 25 is closest in meaning to 15. The word "ready” in line 16 is closest in meaning to

(A) Convince (B) Create

(A) receptive (C) Change (B) organized (D) Notice (C) quick (D) skilled 20. The word “segment” in line 28 is closest in meaning to 16. According to the passage, the growth of mass-circulation magazines in the early 1900s produced a market for authors of

(A) Portion

(A) popular fiction

(C) Company

(B) science fiction

(D) Exchange

(B) Structure

(C) plays (D) poetry

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Questions 21-31

Waste has been generated since the human race began. In early societies, waste included food scraps, sewage, unused animal parts, and broken tools and pottery. Line

However, the amount of waste generated was usually very little because of the scarcity of materials and tools.

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As populations grew, waste management increasingly became a problem. Trash that had been improperly disposed of attracted small animals and insects carrying bacteria and viruses, resulting in diseases and creating a serious health threat. For example, in North America, initial colonial settlements were located on lands adjacent to navigable waterways for trade and protection; this encouraged the dumping of waste in the water where currents transported it downstream. Although such dumping reduced the health hazard for those doing the dumping, it had an impact on both the receiving river as well as people living downstream. However, the health and environmental impact from garbage was relatively limited, the most serious threat coming from human sewage. As the ability to extract raw materials and produce goods increased, the sophistication and complexity of products correspondingly increased. The volume of waste likewise increased, and the waste was composed of a wider variety of materials. By the nineteenth century, mining by-products, acids, and heavy metal waste, in addition to traditional human waste, were being produced at an ever-increasing rate to fulfill increasing demands for new products and materials. Although the Industrial Revolution of the late 1800s brought many advances in technology and unsurpassed wealth for some, it also brought a new generation of waste, whose management received little attention. Furthermore, the unprecedented explosion of synthetic (made by human beings) organic chemicals during the twentieth century increased both the volume and toxicity of waste. Although goods can be produced that were unimaginable a few decades ago, the ability to minimize the amount of waste produced, from food packaging to highly radioactive waste that remains hazardous for millions of years, is not as impressive. Additionally, the ability and desire to manage these unwanted by-products has lagged far behind technological achievements in other areas. Knowledge of the health and environmental effects of the mismanagement of waste has also been deficient.

21. What does the passage mainly discuss?

24. The word "impact” in line 11 is closest in meaning to

(A) The recycling of industrial waste (A) effect (B) The production and disposal of waste (B) obstacle (C) The technology used in waste management

(C) reduction

(D) The development of policies on environmental protection

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(D) surface

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22. It can be inferred in the first paragraph that in early human societies the management of waste (A) was dependent on the use of (B) Interfered with economic developed (C) Rarely involved using waste materials to make other products

25. In the initial colonial settlements in North America, the greatest health risk associated with water came from (A) garbage (B) animal waste (C) human sewage

(D) Was generally a minor problem

(D) insects

23. It can be inferred that the waterways near the initial colonial settlements in North America were affected by waste because

26. The word "correspondingly" in line 15 is closest in meaning to (A) to the same degree

(A) too many trading ships used the waterways (B) of a similar type (B) settlers were not allowed to leave their waste on the land

(C) at a faster rate

(C) it was convenient for settlers to put their waste in the waterways (D) the currents were not strong enough to transport the waste

(D) at a different time

27. Why had the rate of waste production increased by the nineteenth century?

28. The word "it" in line 21 refers to

(A) Regulations controlling industry had been relaxed.

(A) the Industrial Revolution (B) Mining areas had expanded because few metals remained in the ground.

(B) technology (C) wealth

(C) Falling costs of raw materials had led to less efficient manufacturing

(D) generation (D) Consumer demand had led to a rise in the manufacture of goods. 29. The author uses the word “explosion” in Line 22 to indicate that (A) manufacturing synthetic chemicals was dangerous (B) there was a rapid development of 26

synthetic chemicals (C) strong pressure was put on the syntheticchemicals industry to reduce waste (D) the cost of producing synthetic chemicals had a dramatic effect on the economy

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30. The author mentions food packaging and radioactive waste in the fourth paragraph as examples of (A) the most common types of waste materials (B) the great variety of waste Materials (C) waste that can be easily reduced in volume (D) the kinds of waste that are easy to remove

31. The word "desire” in line 28 is closest in meaning to (A) opportunity (B) necessity (C) investment (D) willingness

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Questions 32-41

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Most sources of illumination generate light over an appreciable period, and indeed if an object is lit for a very brief time (less than 1/25 second), the human eye will not react in time to see the object. A photographic emulsion - that is, a Line light - sensitive coating on photographic film, paper, or glass-will, however, record much shorter bursts of light. A photographic flash can therefore be used to capture high-speed movement on film as well as to correct deficiencies of the normal surrounding lighting. Photoflash is now generated electronically, but the earliest form, first used in 1864, was a paper bag containing magnesium wire and some oxygen-rich substance, such as potassium chlorate. When the bag was 28

ignited, the metal burned with an intense flash. A contemporary observer reported that “this quite unsafe deviceseems to have done nothing worse than engulf the room in dense smoke and lead to pictures of dubious quality and odd poses."

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The evolution of the photoflash was slow; flashbulbs, containing fine wire made of a metal, such as magnesium or aluminum, capable of being ignited in an atmosphere of pure oxygen at low pressure, were introduced only in the 1920s. In the earliest type, the metal was separated from the oxygen by a thin glass bulb. The flash was fired by piercing the bulb and allowing the oxygen to come into contact with the metal, which ignited spontaneously. Later bulbs were fired by an electric battery, which heated the wire by passing a small current through it. Other combinations, such as the pairing of oxygen difluoride with zirconium, have also been used. In each case enough energy is given out to heat the oxidizable metal momentarily to a white-hot emission of visible light. The smoke particles are so small that they cool rapidly; but since they are white, they contribute to the brilliance by reflecting the light from their still-glowing neighbors. A slightly bigger form of the metal will burn for a longer time.

32. What does the passage mainly discuss?

34. According to the passage, an advantage of using a photoflash is that it

(A) The history of the photoflash (A) can produce repeated bursts of Light (B) Theories about how the eye reacts to light

(B) intensifies colors in photographs

(C) The technology of modern photography

(C) is short enough not to bother human eyes

(D) The dangers of using the early photoflash (D) supplements existing lighting 33. Which of the following phrases is defined in the first paragraph?

35. The word "ignited” in line 9 is closest in meaning to

(A) “appreciable period” (line 1) (A) set on fire (B) “photographic emulsion” (line 3) (B) cut into (C) "high-speed movement” (line 6) (C) opened (D) "odd poses” (line 12) (D) shaken

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36. The word "engulf' in line 11 is closest in meaning to

39. The word "it" in line 19 refers to (A) oxygen

(A) fill (B) battery (B) brighten (C) wire (C) record (D) current (D) make dangerous

37. The word "evolution” in line 13 is closest in meaning to

40. The word "momentarily" in line 21 is closest in meaning to (A) effortlessly

(A) publicity (B) briefly (B) adoption (C) electronically (C) development (D) gradually (D) manufacture

38. The function of the glass in the first flashbulbs was to (A) produce the spark that initiated the flash

41. According to the passage, the white color of the smoke particles generated by a flashbulb contributes to (A) rapid cooling (B) bright illumination

(B) magnify the light produced by the flash (C) protect the photographer from the heat of the flash

(C) electrical conductivity (D) intense heat

(D) keep the metal and oxygen apart before the flash

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Questions 42-50

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Two Chinese inventions, block printing and paper, are linked with the beginnings of typographic printing in western Europe. Xylography, or block printing, originated in China in the early eighth century. The printers drew in reverse on a block of wood the Line text or the picture they wished to reproduce, carved the wood so that the graphic pattern stood out in relief, inked the block, and transferred the design to a sheet of paper. The process sounds simple, but it is not well adapted to the alphabetic writing of Europe, which relies on different arrangements of the same letters. Its transmission to Europe---probably during the century from A.D. 1250 to 1350.-had little direct importance for the development of typographic printing. However, its indirect importance was great. It probably suggested the next crucial step: cutting up an old carved-text block into individual letters and then rearranging these letters to spell out a new text. Xylography certainly spread the idea of printing and of the printed book, while the lively commercial success starting in the late fourteenth century of printed playing cards (another Chinese invention), religious prints, and crude block books showed the size of the European market and the potential profit to be gained from book printing. Paper was indispensable, but for economic rather than technical reasons. Handprinted books were traditionally copied on parchment (made from split sheepskin) or on vellum (calfskin), and these materials were also used by typographic printers when the aim was magnificence rather than usefulness. But since a single large book like the Bible required as many as 170 calfskins or 300 sheepskins, the cheap, rapid, and mechanized production of books in large numbers would have been impossible without paper. Paper manufacture was introduced in Spain during the twelfth century by the Arabs, who had themselves received the technique from China. It spread slowly during the next two centuries to much of Europe. In Europe the chiefraw material was old rags. Paper makers shredded the rags in a stamping mill and then mixed them with water to form a liquid pulp. The pulp was molded on large flat wire sieves and then squeezed in a press and dried to form paper.

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43. The word “It” in line 10 refers to the

(A) The differences between Chinese and European printing (A) process of xylography (B) The development of alphabetic writing in Europe (C) The influence of Chinese block printing on European printing

(B) alphabetic writing of Europe (C) century from A.D. 1250 to 1350 (D) development of typographic printing

(D) The popularity of Chinese books in Europe

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44. The passage suggests which of the following about typographic printing?  (A) It is poorly suited to European texts. (B) It uses small carved blocks that can be rearranged. (C) It is most often used to reproduce pictures. (D) It is primarily effective for small printing jobs.  45. The author mentions "playing cards” (line 14) in order to show  (A) the popularity of printed  materials among European buyers (B) the many drawbacks of typographic printing (C) the success of European printing before xylography (D) the limitations of the European market  46. The introduction of xylography affected Europeans in all of the following ways EXCEPT: (A) They gradually stopped using the typographic method of printing books.

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48. According to the passage, what factor limited the number of books that were printed on parchment or vellum? (A) The preference of most readers for handprinted books (B) The limited knowledge of typographic printing techniques (C) The large quantities of resources required to produce a book (D) The general lack of interest in books with religious themes

49. The passage suggests that which of the following existed in Europe before the twelfth century A.D.? (A) Typographic printing technology (B) Crude block-printed books (C) Paper manufactured from old rags

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(B) They became more aware of different kinds of printed materials. (C) They began to consider effective ways of printing their own books. (D) They realized the possible financial gains of book printing

(D) Hand-printed parchment books

50. The work “Shredded” in line 26 is closest In meaning to (A) Stetctched out (B) Folded (C) Tore Apart (D) Flattened

47. The word "magnificence” in line 20 is closest in meaning to (A) beauty (B) permanence (C) speed (D) availability

ETS. TOEFL ITP General Directions General Directions This is a test of your ability to understand and use the English language. The test is divided into three sections, and each section or part of a section begins with a set of specific directions. The directions include sample questions. Before you begin to work on a section or part, be sure that you understand what you will need to do. The supervisor will tell you when to start each section and when to stop and go on to the next section. You should work quickly but carefully. Do not spend too much time on any one question. If you finish a section early, you may review your answers on that section only. You may not go on to a new section, and you may not return to a section that you have already left. ba You will find that some of the questions are more difficult than others, but you should try to answer every one. Your score will be based on the number of correct answers you give. If you are not sure of the correct answer to a question, make the best guess you can. It is to your advantage to answer every question, even if you have to guess the answer. Do not mark your answers in the test book. You must mark all of your answers on the separate answer sheet that the supervisor will give to you. When you mark your answer to a question on your answer sheet, you must:  

Use a medium-soft (#2 or HB) black lead pencil. . Check the number of the question, and find that number on your answer sheet. Then,

after that number, find the circle with the letter of the answer you have chosen. 33



Carefully make a dark mark that completely fills the circle so that you cannot see the letter inside the circle.  Mark only one answer to each question.  Erase all extra marks completely. If you change your mind about an answer after you have marked it on your answer sheet, erase your old answer completely, and mark your new answer. 

After the supervisor tells you to stop your work, you will not be permitted to make

any additional corrections. The examples below show you the correct way and wrong ways of marking an answer sheet.

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