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EERC ENGLISH LANGUAGE ENTRANCE TEST 2006 Tbilisi, June 2006 Listening Comprehension (15 points) Part 1. You will hear short conversations. From the three answer choices provided, choose the one which means about the same thing as what you hear, or is true based on what you hear. 1

(A) Bob is losing money (B) Bob has a mint factory (C) Bob is a very successful businessman

2

(A) Sue doesn’t have enough money (B) Sue doesn’t meet many people (C) Sue can’t finish her work

3

(A) She wants him to be quiet (B) She’s almost ready (C) She wants him to be patient

4

(A) Joe is usually punctual (B) Joe is headed for trouble (C) There’s no problem

5

(A) It was the worst movie he’s ever seen. (B) The movie was excellent (C) The movie was OK

Part 2. You will hear a segment from a radio program called “The Experts Speak”. From the answer choices given, choose the one which best answers the question. 6

What does the speaker say about being part of a crowd? (A) It can be enjoyable in certain situations (B) It isn’t a necessary part of city living (C) It is enjoyable only at sports events and political rallies

7

What do different types of crowds do? (A) They move in different ways (B) They behave in a similar manner (C) They show no discernable patterns when studied

8

What are scientists able to do? (A) They can model a crowd’s behavior by using computers (B) They can provide no useful information for stadium construction (C) They can explain how people in crowds feel

9

How do people behave in crowds? (A) They move in a random fashion (B) They are unaffected by the other people in the crowd (C) They are influenced by others in the crowd

10

What does the speaker say about being part of a crowd? (A) It can be enjoyable in certain situations (B) It isn’t a necessary part of city living (C) It is enjoyable only at sports events and political rallies

Part 3. Listen to another segment from a radio program called “The Experts Speak” and decide whether the statements given below are true or false. 11

The story about heaven is meant to illustrate that even heaven isn’t perfect

□ True □

False

12

It is important to receive a salary because it gives us reason to work

□ True □

False

13

The speaker calls our attitude to work “masochistic” because our sense of well-being depends on suffering

□ True □

False

14

Employed people regard unemployed people as lazy ones

□ True □

False

15

The speaker suggests that most people’s attitude towards work is exaggerated.

□ True □

False

Reading Comprehension (10 points) In this section of the test you will read two passages. Each passage is followed by a number of questions about it. Answer all questions about the information in a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage and choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), or (D). Passage 1 Until recently, hunting for treasure from shipwrecks was mostly fantasy; with recent technological advances, however, the search for sunken treasure has become more popular as a legitimate endeavor. This has caused a debate between those wanting to salvage the wrecks and those wanting to preserve them. Treasure hunters are spurred on by the thought of finding caches of gold coins or other valuable objects on a sunken ship. One team of salvagers, for instance, searched the wreck of the RMS Republic, which sank outside the Boston harbor in 1909. The search party, using side-scan sonar, a device that projects sound waves across the ocean bottom and produces a profile of the sea floor, located the wreck in just two and a half days. Before the use of this new technology, such searches could take months or years. The team of 45 divers searched the wreck for two months, finding silver tea services, crystal dinnerware, and thousands of bottles of wine, but they did not find the five and a half tons of American Gold Eagle coins they were searching for. Preservationists focus on the historic value of a ship. They say that, even if a shipwreck's treasure does not have a high monetary value, it can be an invaluable source of historic artifacts that are preserved in nearly mint condition. But once a salvage team has scoured a site, much of the archaeological value is lost. Maritime archaeologists who are preservationists worry that the success of salvagers will attract more treasure-hunting expeditions and thus threaten remaining undiscovered wrecks. Preservationists are lobbying their state lawmakers to legally restrict underwater searches and unregulated salvages. To counter their efforts, treasure hunters argue that without the lure of gold and million-dollar treasures, the wrecks and their historical artifacts would never be recovered at all. Questions 1-6: 1. What is the main idea of this passage? (A)

Searching for wrecks is much easier with new technologies like side-scan sonar.

(B)

Maritime archaeologists are concerned about the unregulated searching of wrecks.

(C)

The search of the RMS Republic failed to produce the hoped- for coins.

(D)

The popularity of treasure seeking has spurred a debate between preservationists and salvagers.

2. The word "sunken" in line 2 is closest in meaning to which of the following words? (A)

Broken

(B)

Underwater

(C)

Ancient

(D)

Hollow

3. Which of the following statements is best supported by the author? (A)

The value of a shipwreck depends on the quantity of its artifacts.

(B)

Preservationists are fighting the use of technological advances such as side-scan sonar.

(C)

Side-scan sonar has helped to legitimize salvaging.

(D)

The use of sound waves is crucial to locating shipwrecks.

4. The author uses the phrase "mint condition" in line 14 to describe (A)

something perfect.

(B)

something significant.

(C)

something tolerant.

(D)

something magical.

5. From the passage, you can infer that a preservationist would be most likely to (A)

shun treasure-seeking salvagers.

(B)

be a diver.

(C)

put treasures in a museum.

(D)

do archaeological research.

6. In line 18, what is the closest meaning to the word "lure"? (A)

Knowledge

(B)

Attraction

(C)

Luxury

(D)

Glare

Passage 2 The Civil War created feverish manufacturing activity to supply critical material, especially in the North. When the fighting stopped, the stage was set for dramatic economic growth. Wartime taxes on production had vanished, and the few taxes that remained leaned heavily on real estate, not on business. The population flow from farm to city increased, and the labor force it provided was buttressed by millions of newly arrived immigrants willing to work for low wages in the mills of the North and on the railroad crews of the Midwest and West. The federal government's position toward economic expansion was nothing if not accommodating. The government established tariff barriers, provided loans and grants to build a transcontinental railroad, and assumed a studied stance of nonintervention in private enterprise. The Social Darwinism of British philosopher Herbert Spencer and American economist William Graham Summer prevailed. The theory was that business, if left to its own devices, would eliminate the weak and nurture the strong. But as business

expanded, the rivalry heated up. In the 1880s, five railroads operating between New York and Chicago vied for traffic, and two more were under construction. As a result of the battle, the fare between the cities decreased to $1. Petroleum companies likewise competed savagely and, in the 1880s, many of them failed. Questions 7-10: 7. The word “feverish” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to (A)

extremely rapid.

(B)

sickly and slow.

(C)

very dangerous.

(D)

understandable.

8. The phrase real еstate in paragraph 1 refers to (A)

tools and machines.

(B)

actual income.

(C)

new enterprises.

(D)

land and buildings.

9. The word “buttressed” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to (A)

concerned.

(B)

supplemented.

(C)

restructured.

(D)

enriched.

10. The word “prevailed” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to (A)

influenced.

(B)

triumphed.

(C)

premiered.

(D)

evolved.

Language Structure (55 points) Part 1. Read each sentence or short conversation. From the four answer choices given, choose the one which best fills each blank. 1.

“What a foolish thing to do!” “Not __________ foolish but also dangerous.” (A) was it only (B) it was only (C) only was it (D) it was only

2. “There aren’t any cookies left.” “Oh, Connor __________ them all last night”

(A) should have eaten

(B) must have eaten

(C) will have eaten

(D) can’t eat

3. “Who’s that man?” “He’s the man ___________ last night.” (A) whom I met (B) what I met (C) who I met (D) which I met 4. “Did you hear about the teachers’ strike?” “Yes, but only ___________ teachers from our school are taking part.” (A) a little (B) a few (C) few (D) little 5. “Has Sheila forgiven Dean?” “No, he _____________ to prove to her that he’s really sorry.” (A) has already (B) has yet (C) yet has (D) still have 6. “Stanley’s so selfish and manipulative!” “ Yes, I know, but there’s little hope ____________” (A) of his changing (B) of him to change (C) he changes (D) of his change 7. “Why hasn’t she got any friends?” “She’s _____________ no one likes her.” (A) so rude that (B) as rude that (C) too rude that

(D) too rude as

8. “I made the soup myself.” “It ______________”

9.

(A) tastes very nice

(C) nicely tastes

(B) tastes nicely

(D) very nicely tastes

“Dad’s eyesight is really poor!” “Yes. He needs ___________ to the optician.” (A) to go (B) that he goes (C) going (D) go

10. “Do you mind who I bring to the party?” “Of course not. Come with ____________ you want.” (A) everyone (B) whichever (C) whoever (D) either one 11. “What about lunch with us on Saturday?” “Oh, I’m sorry. I _____________ until six on Saturday.” (A) am working (B) will be going to work (C) will have worked (D) am having work 12. “I checked to see if she‘d taken her passport.” “ __________ she?” (A) Would (B) Had (C) Did (D) Has 13. “Why don’t you have a piece of cake?” “No, thanks. I’m not used __________ between meals.” (A) to eat

(B) of eating (C) to eating (D) for eating

14. “Were you surprised when Lance left his job?” “No, he _________________ about it for months.” (A) has been thinking (B) thought (C) has thought (D) had been thinking 15. “The TV isn’t working.” “I’ll have to get someone __________ it quickly.” (A) to repair (B) repairing (C) repaired (D) repair 16. “Why didn’t you buy any presents?” “I ______________ some if I hag had more money.” (A) will have bought (B) can have bought (C) would have bought (D) would buy 17. “What’s the matter?” “Oh, I just wish that my mother ___________ nagging.” (A) will stop (B) stops (C) had stopped (D) would stop 18. “I can’t make cookies like yours. Mine turn out hard and crunchy.” “Try ____________ more milk.” (A) adding (B) to add (C) that you add (D) add

19. “Jeff won’t clean his room.” “If Jeff won’t clean his room, ____________” (A) neither won’t I

(B) either will I

(C) won’t I too

(D) neither will I

20. “Should I show you the receipts before I put them into the folder?” “Yes, it’s essential that all receipts ______________signed by me or Mr. Neville.” (A) be

(C) shall be

(B) will be

(D) had been

21. “What’s the matter?” “I’d rather you _____________ me by my nickname in front of strangers.” (A) haven’t called (B) not called (C) didn’t call (D) won’t call 22. “I don’t believe he got a raise.” “Can you tell me ____________ the boss tell him that?” (A) when did you hear (B) who does hear (C) when have you heard (D) when you heard 23. “How long does it take you to get downtown?” “About 40 minutes, but today _____________ I took the bus.” (A) took twice that, as (B) I took twice more, as (C) it took twice that, as (D) it had taken twice that, as 24. “What was that about Jill?” “Did you know that ____________ married six times?” (A) she is believed to (B) she has been believed to get (C) she is believed to have been (D) it is believed she to have 25. “What did he say?” “He suggested ____________to the oceanarium.”

(A) we go

(B) us to go

(C) that we can go

(D) we going

Part 2. Fill the gaps in the following text with only one word in each space. There is an example at the beginning (0). REGRETS? I’VE HAD A FEW What do people most regret about (0) ………….their ……………lives? Is it the mistakes they made which they (1) ……………………………. they hadn’t? Or is it the things they didn’t (2) ………………… which cause the most regret? Recent research shows that people feel a much stronger (3) ………………………….. of regret about missed opportunities. They regret not training (4) …………………………… a career, not learning a skill, not emigrating to (5) ……………………. country and not developing personal relationships, even when they had the opportunity to do (6) ………………………….. . People don’t feel regret at situations (7)……………………….. their control. It is situations in which they (8) ……………….. have acted but failed to act that give rise to regret. Obviously, people have more regrets (9) ……………………. they get older. Interviews with middle-aged men and women indicate some differences (10) …………………. the sexes. Women tend to regret marrying too young and not taking advantage of educational opportunities. Men tend to regret not spending (11) …………………….

time

with

their

families

when

their

children

were

small.

Almost

(12)

……………………… expresses regret (13) …………………… not having the courage to take a risk. They regret (14) ………………………. too careful and too cautious. What can young people learn from these experiences? Undoubtedly, that the Latin saying carpe diem (‘seize the day’) is one to be (15) ……………… seriously.

Part 3. Look carefully at each line. Some of the lines are correct, and some have a word which should not be there. If a line is correct, put a tick (√) by the number in the answer boxes provided. If a line has a word which should not be there, write the word in the answer boxes provided. FLYING 0 00 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

The most of us get on a plane excited about our holiday. But after the flight we feel exhausted, which is not the ideal way to start a holiday. How about can we stay fresh on a plane journey? Firstly, allow you yourself plenty of time to get To the airport and check in it. This cuts out stress. Don’t eat rich, heavy food before you will board the plane, as this may make you to feel nauseous before you even have take off. Pass the time pleasantly by reading Or watching the film provided. Free of drinks are usually provided on flights. Flying during the night can to be tiring, so try to get some sleep. Pillows and blankets are usually distributed to all passengers. Meals are as usually provided free and are generally Of reasonable quality. Have a good flight!

0 00 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

the √

Writing (20 points) Write the composition of about 250 words. The paper will be marked considering its content, structure and fluency, grammar and vocabulary.