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Standards Certification Education & Training Publishing Conferences & Exhibits

Control Systems Engineering (CSE) Study Guide, Fifth Edition for the Professional Engineering (PE) Licensing Examination

CONTROL SYSTEMS ENGINEERING STUDY GUIDE Fifth Edition

FOR THE PROFESSIONAL ENGINEERING LICENSING EXAMINATION

International Society of Automation P.O. Box 12277 Research Triangle Park, NC 27709

Notice The information presented in this publication is for the general education of the reader. Because neither the author nor the publisher has any control over the use of the information by the reader, both the author and the publisher disclaim any and all liability of any kind arising out of such use. The reader is expected to exercise sound professional judgment in using any of the information presented in a particular application. Additionally, neither the author nor the publisher have investigated or considered the effect of any patents on the ability of the reader to use any of the information in a particular application. The reader is responsible for reviewing any possible patents that may affect any particular use of the information presented. Any references to commercial products in the work are cited as examples only. Neither the author nor the publisher endorses any referenced commercial product. Any trademarks or trade names referenced belong to the respective owner of the mark or name. Neither the author nor the publisher make any representation regarding the availability of any referenced commercial product at any time. The manufacturer's instructions on use of any commercial product must be followed at all times, even if in conflict with the information in this publication. Copyright © 2012 by ISA 67 Alexander Drive P.O. Box 12277 Research Triangle Park, NC 27709 All rights reserved. Printed in the United States of America. ISBN: 978-1937560-03-4 No part of this work may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system, or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise, without the prior written permission of the publisher. For information on corporate or group discounts for this book, e-mail: [email protected].

TABLE OF CONTENTS PREFACE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1 GENERAL INFORMATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3 STATE LICENSING REQUIREMENTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3 Eligibility . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3 Examination Schedule. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4 Application Procedures and Deadlines . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4 DESCRIPTION OF EXAMINATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4 Exam Format. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4 Exam Content . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5 EXAMINATION DEVELOPMENT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5 Exam Validity . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5 Exam Specifications . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5 Exam Preparation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6 MINIMUM COMPETENCE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6 SCORING PROCEDURES. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6 EXAMINATION PROCEDURES AND INSTRUCTIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7 Reference Materials . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7 Exam Materials. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8 Starting and Completing the Exam . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8 Special Accommodations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8 TIPS ON TAKING PE EXAMINATIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9 REFERENCES FOR CSE EXAMINATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 11 GENERAL REFERENCES. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 11 SPECIFIC KNOWLEDGE AREAS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13 I. Measurement. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13 II. Signals and Transmission . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 14 III. Final Control Elements . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 14 IV. Control Systems . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 15 V. Safety Systems . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 16 VI. Codes and Standards . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 17

APPENDIX A CSE EXAM SPECIFICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 23 APPENDIX B SAMPLE QUESTIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 29 APPENDIX C ANSWERS TO SAMPLE QUESTIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 73 APPENDIX D SAMPLE EXAMINATION MATERIALS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 89

PREFACE Control Systems Engineering (CSE) was recognized by a vote of the National Council of Examiners for Engineering and Surveying (NCEES) at its annual meeting in Nashua, New Hampshire, on August 10, 1991. Recognition means that an examination will be developed by NCEES, with help from a professional society, and offered for use by boards for engineering licensing in the United States. NCEES recognition followed a request by control systems engineers to the Texas Board of Registration for Professional Engineers that it accept CSEs for licensing in that state. The Texas Board, in turn, asked NCEES to provide an approved examination. Meetings with CSEs, mostly ISA members, showed NCEES committee and staff members that this new discipline satisfied their criteria for recognition: existence of ABET-accredited programs in the field; an effect on the public health, safety and welfare, and a need on the part of the profession; sufficient numbers to justify preparation of an exam; and availability of a professional society willing to support an exam program. An exam committee was required to submit a two-year supply of acceptable exam problems. The supporting professional society is ISA – The International Society of Automation, originally the Instrument Society of America (ISA). CSE was first recognized in California in the 1970s. A limited period of licensing without examination (grandfathering) occurred in 1975-76, and an exam was administered starting in 1978. The California exam did not meet NCEES standards and was not accepted by other states for registration by reciprocity. These difficulties were removed with availability of an NCEESapproved exam, administered for the first time in October, 1992. By April 2010, forty-six state boards had agreed to offer the CSE exam. The other boards (Alaska, Hawaii, New York and Rhode Island) have asked for a showing of need and interest in their states before they will recognize CSE.

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GENERAL INFORMATION INTRODUCTION This study guide is published by ISA – The International Society of Automation, to assist candidates who are preparing for the Principles-andPractice of Engineering examination in Control Systems Engineering (CSE), one of the requirements for licensure as a professional engineer. The CSE exam is developed by the National Council of Examiners for Engineering and Surveying (NCEES). The membership of NCEES is comprised of the boards of registration in 55 US jurisdictions (50 states, 4 territories and the District of Columbia). As one of its functions, NCEES provides these boards with uniform exams which are valid measures of competency for the practice of engineering. To develop reliable and valid exams, NCEES employs procedures using the guidelines established in the Standards for Educational and Psychological Testing (1985), published by the American Psychological Association. These procedures are intended to maximize the fairness and quality of the exams. The procedures require the involvement of experienced testing specialists having the necessary expertise to develop examinations using current testing techniques. The exams are the result of careful preparation by committees comprised of professional engineers from throughout the United States. These engineers supply the content expertise which is essential in developing exams. By utilizing the expertise of engineers with different backgrounds, such as private consulting, government, industry and education, NCEES prepares exams which are valid measures of competency.

STATE LICENSING REQUIREMENTS Eligibility Licensing of Control Systems Engineers (CSEs) is intended to protect the public by ensuring that practitioners in this field possess a necessary level of minimum competence. While exams offer one means of measuring the competency levels of candidates, most jurisdictions also screen candidates based upon education and experience requirements. Licensing requirements vary from state to state, so it is necessary to contact the appropriate board. Up-to-date phone numbers and addresses can be obtained by calling the information operator in your state capitol, or by checking the Internet at www.ncees.org or nspe.org.

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Prior to 1998, most states did not have citizenship or residence requirements. Now, as a result of the Welfare Reform Act passed by the US Congress in 1996, states cannot confer a “benefit” (including a professional or commercial license) on a person who is not a US citizen or legal resident. However, licenses can be issued to holders of certain types of visas for entry into the US. Because the rules are complex, candidates affected by this regulation should discuss their situation with one of the state boards. Examination Schedule The CSE exam is offered once per year, on the last weekend in October. Application deadlines vary from state to state, but typically are about three or four months ahead of the exam date. Applicants for the CSE exam must have taken and passed the Fundamentalsof-Engineering (FE) exam, also called the Engineer-in-Training (EIT) exam, or have received a waiver of this exam. Many state boards will waive the FE/EIT exam for persons with sufficient approved engineering experience, usually at least eight years. This exam is given in April and October. Note: Recipients of waivers may encounter difficulty in becoming licensed by “reciprocity” or “comity” in another state where waivers are not available. Therefore, applicants are advised that it may be advantageous to take and pass the FE/EIT exam. Application Procedures and Deadlines Applications and information are available from the individual boards. Requirements and fees vary among the jurisdictions, and applicants are responsible for contacting their board office. Sufficient time must be allotted to complete the application process and assemble required data, including a professional work history, references, and academic transcripts or other verifications of the applicant's engineering education.

DESCRIPTION OF EXAMINATION Exam Format The NCEES Principles-and-Practice of Engineering exam (commonly called the PE exam) in Control Systems Engineering (CSE) is an eight-hour exam, administered in two four-hour sessions. Each session contains forty (40) questions in a multiple-choice form. Questions are stated in a standardized form. Questions start with a “stem” which describes a situation an engineer might encounter in practice. Any information or data that the examinee needs appears in the stem. Each

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question has a correct answer and three incorrect answers. More than one question may be based on a common stem. All of the questions are compulsory; applicants are expected to answer all of the questions. Each correct answer receives one point. If a question is omitted or answered incorrectly, it will receive a score of zero. There is no penalty for guessing. Sample questions appear in Appendix B of this book. Exam Content The subject areas of the CSE exam are described by the exam specification given in Appendix A.

EXAMINATION DEVELOPMENT Exam Validity Testing standards require that questions on a licensing exam be representative of important tasks needed for competent practice in the profession. The relation between the exam questions and these tasks is established by a vocational or task analysis of the profession which identifies the duties performed by practicing engineers. This information is used to develop an exam content specification which guides development of job-related questions. In 1991, ISA retained a contractor to conduct a comprehensive professional activities and requirements study of the CSE discipline. Questionnaires were sent to 3200 professional engineers practicing as CSEs; approximately 800 replies were received. Based on their responses, a specification was developed for an exam to measure critical aspects of the CSE profession. The first exam was administered in October, 1992. The exam specification was modified slightly when the all-multiple-choice format initiated in 1998. Similar studies are performed for all of the disciplines in which NCEES provides exams. The studies are repeated periodically to reflect changes in technology. In 2002-3 and in 2009-11, following NCEEs policy, the CSE exam specification was revised. Exam Specifications The examination specification presented in Appendix A shows six major knowledge areas for CSEs. For each area, possible sub-areas and topics for exam questions are listed.

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Exam Preparation Exams are developed by a standing ISA committee. Members of the committee are CSEs, already registered as PEs, who volunteer to write or review questions. ISA membership is not required. A group of committee members meets at least twice annually, to determine the passing score for the most recent exam or to select questions for future exams. Between these meetings, committee members write new questions. The content and format of the questions are reviewed by committee members for compliance with the exam specifications and to assure the quality and fairness of the exam. These engineers are representative of the profession in terms of geographic location, area of practice, ethnic background, and gender.

MINIMUM COMPETENCE One of the most critical considerations in developing and administering exams for professional engineering registration or licensing is establishment of passing scores which reflect a standard of minimum competence. Minimum competence, as measured by the exam component of the licensing process, is defined by NCEES as follows: The lowest level of knowledge at which a person can practice professional engineering in such a manner that will safeguard life, health and property and promote the public welfare. The concept of minimum competence is a primary concern of committee members as they prepare questions for the exam.

SCORING PROCEDURES Each question is worth 0 or 1 point, so the entire 8-hour exam has a maximum score of 80 points. Because it is impossible to write multiple-choice questions to a precise degree of difficulty, a passing score cannot be set in advance but must be determined individually for each exam administration. However, candidates should understand that NCEES exams are NOT graded “by the curve” so that pre-specified percentages of examinees will pass and fail. Instead, they are graded by an “item-specific, criterion-referenced” method, i.e., answers are evaluated in terms of what a minimally-competent candidate is expected to know. With this procedure, each candidate is judged separately and without regard to the performance of other examinees. To achieve this result, a passing score workshop or equivalent procedure is conducted for each exam.

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At a passing-score workshop, a panel of engineers who have not been involved with preparation of the exams is asked to study the questions and independently estimate the fraction of minimally-competent candidates who would answer each question correctly. These estimates are averaged for the panel and then summed to obtain a passing score. After each exam administration, examinees' answers are analyzed to determine if any questions might have contained typographical or other errors and thus have no correct answer, or might have more than one correct answer under some circumstances. Examinees receive a form during the test administration for use in calling attention to possible bad questions. Poor questions are discarded or revised before further use. Exam scoring and analysis is supervised by consulting psychometricians (testing specialists) provided by NCEES. Legal authority for licensing decisions rests with the individual registration boards and not with NCEES or ISA. Consequently, each board has the authority to fix its own passing score for the exam. NCEES provides each board with a recommended passing score developed by the methods described above; the recommended score is generally adopted by the boards. Candidates may appeal a board decision, subject to rules established by the board. Note: In some states, licensing exams must — by law — have a passing score of 70. For these states, NCEES scales the raw scores so the maximum score becomes 100 and the passing score becomes 70. Where this occurs, scores are not directly comparable from state to state, but the same group of applicants will pass on either basis.

EXAMINATION PROCEDURES AND INSTRUCTIONS Reference Materials The PE exam in CSE is open-book. Your board determines the reference materials and calculators that will be allowed. In general, you may use textbooks, handbooks and bound reference materials; battery-operated, silent, non-printing calculators are usually permitted. Bring spare batteries; do not expect to be seated next to an electrical outlet. Writing tablets, unbound notes or tables, and devices that could compromise the security of the exam are NOT permitted. In the exam booklets, questions are printed on the right-hand pages; the left-hand pages are blank and can be used for calculations or scratch work. Examinees are prohibited from copying questions for future use. State boards differ in their rules regarding references and calculators, so you should contact your board for its specific instructions.

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Exam Materials Before each session, proctors will distribute exam booklets and answer sheets to be used in responding to the questions. The exam booklet should not be opened until you are instructed to do so by the proctor. Read the instructions and information given on the front and back covers. Enter your name in the upper right corner of the front cover. Listen carefully to all instructions read by the proctor. ALL answers must be recorded on the answer sheets in the spaces corresponding to the question numbers. NO credit is given for anything written in the exam booklet. The answer sheets for the multiple-choice questions are machine scored. For proper scoring, the answer spaces should be blackened completely. Use only #2 pencils or mechanical pencils with HB lead. Marks in ink or felt-tip pens may not be scanned accurately. If you decide to change an answer, the first answer must be erased completely. Incomplete erasures and stray marks may be read as intended answers. One side of the answer sheet is used to collect identification and biographical data. Proctors will guide you through this part of the answer sheet prior to your taking the test. The process will take about 15 minutes. Copies of the answer sheets described above are given in the following pages. It will be wise to become familiar with them before the exam. Starting and Completing the Exam You are not to open the exam booklet until instructed to do so by the proctor. Inside the front cover is additional important information. If you should complete the exam with more than 30 minutes remaining, you are free to leave. Within 30 minutes of the end of the exam, you are required to remain until the end to avoid disrupting those still working and to permit orderly collection of all exam materials. Regardless of when you complete the exam, you are responsible for returning the numbered exam booklet assigned to you. Cooperate with the proctors collecting the exam materials. Nobody will be allowed to leave until the proctor has verified that all materials have been collected. Special Accommodations If you need special accommodations in the test-taking procedure, due to a disabling condition, you should communicate your need to your board office well in advance of the examination day so that appropriate arrangements can be made.

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TIPS ON TAKING PE EXAMINATIONS  Advance study, either individual or in an organized review course, is generally helpful in preparing for a PE exam. Surveys show that the principle of diminishing returns sets in after 40-100 hours of preparation.  Last-minute cramming is probably not helpful. A good night's sleep is advised before the exam.  Check that you have the necessary references, calculator, replacement batteries, pencils, etc., before leaving for the exam site. Tape recorders, cameras, cell phones, walkie-talkie radios and other communication devices are prohibited in exam rooms.  Plan to arrive early at the exam site, allowing for delays in travel and parking.  Before starting to answer any questions, read all of them. Rank them by the apparent degree of difficulty for you. Tackle the easiest questions first, then the next easiest, and so on, until you have answered all of the questions in the morning or afternoon half of the exam. This approach will leave more time for the tougher questions at the end of the session.  Because the morning and afternoon sessions are each four hours, you will have approximately six minutes per question, not counting the time spent reviewing the entire exam before starting.  If you finish the exam ahead of time, check your calculations or try answering a question by an alternate method.  If you are running short of time or are uncertain about the correct answer, try to eliminate clearly incorrect answers and make a guess among the remaining answers (since there is no penalty for guessing).  Do not change your initial answer to a problem unless there is an obvious oversight or error.

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REFERENCES FOR CSE EXAMINATION The following pages list reference books that may be useful in preparing for and taking the PE examination in CSE. The list has been organized into the same topic areas as the exam. Where possible, several books have been listed for each topic, and excerpts from the tables of contents are included to assist candidates in comparing these books with other similar references. It is NOT suggested that candidates should be familiar with or own all of the following books, because there are substantial overlaps in coverage of the exam content in the listed books. Instead, candidates should review these books and other similar books, select a limited number of references covering the major areas of the CSE exam, and study the selected references to learn where particular topics are covered. Some of the listed references may be out of print or unavailable. However, their coverage of basic principles may still be valid and useful. Some older references may have been replaced by newer editions, so be alert to this possibility.

ISA offers a wide range of books, standards, electronic media products, and training courses on control systems engineering, some of which are abstracted in this section. A free catalog can be obtained by contacting ISA at P.O. Box 12277, Research Triangle Park, NC 27709; phone (919) 5498411, FAX (919) 549-8288.

No representation is made or intended that mastery of the content of the listed references is sufficient to assure passing the CSE exam.

GENERAL REFERENCES Below is a list of reference material that one successful PE examinee used:

ISBN

Title

0-8493-1083-0 Instrument Engineers’ Handbook, 4th Edition, Vol. 1: Process Measurement and Analysis 0-8493-1081-4 Instrument Engineers’ Handbook, 4th Edition, Vol. 2: Process Control and Optimization

Author/Editor/ Publisher Béla G. Lipták Béla G. Lipták

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0-87201-382-0 Applied Instrumentation in the Process Industries Volume I – 2nd Edition A Survey 0-87201-047-3 Applied Instrumentation in the Process Industries Volume III – 3rd Edition Engineering Data & Resource Material 0-8019-6766-x Instrumentation for Process Measurement & Control – 3rd Edition 0-07-012445-0 Process/Industrial Instruments & Controls Handbook – 4th Edition 0-932276-31-8 EIT Review Manual -Professional Publications, Inc. Flow of Fluids Through Valves, Fittings, & Pipe – Technical Paper No. 410 Flow Meter Engineering Handbook – 5th Edition 951-95409-9-7 Flow Control Manual

W.G. Andrew & H.B. Williams W.G. Andrew & H.B. Williams Norman A. Anderson Douglas M. Considine Michael R. Lindeburg, P.E. Professional Engineering Institute The Crane Company

C.F. Cusick – Honeywell Lasse Kamppari – Neles-Jamesbury Engineering Handbook For Neles-Jamesbury Neles-Jamesbury Control Valves – Technical Bulletin T150-1 Engineering Data Gorman-Rupp Pumps Programmable Controllers Practices & Concepts Control Valve Handbook – 2nd Edition

Cameron Hydraulic Data – 3rd Edition 978-1-55617995-2

978-1937560034

The Condensed Handbook of Measurement and Control, Third Edition Consolidated Safety Relief Valves SRV-1

R.A. Gilbert & J.A. Llewellyn Fisher Controls Company http:// www.emersonprocess .com/fisher/ products/ documentation.html C.C. Heald – Ingersoll Rand N.E. Battikha P.E.

Dresser Industrial Valves Control Systems Engineering Study Guide – ISA 5th Edition

This list is presented here as an example of the references that met an individuals specific needs. This list provides a good starting point for a candidates’ development of his/her study reference list and exam reference material. The material that you use should be based on your background and references that you are familiar with and meets your jurisdiction (state, territory, or district) guidelines and limitations. The following references cover more than one of the areas included in the CSE exam:  D. A. Coggan, FUNDAMENTALS OF INDUSTRIAL CONTROL, ISA, 2005. [Sensors; analyzers; process control; final elements; computer technology; control theory; analog and digital control devices;

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telemetry; distributed control systems; programmable controllers; ergonomics, human factors and safety; applications; engineering practices]  W. G. Andrew and H. B. Williams, APPLIED INSTRUMENTATION IN THE PROCESS INDUSTRIES - Vol. 3 (3rd Ed.), Gulf Publishing Company, Houston, TX, 1993. [Fluid flow; engineering graphical symbols; charts; tables; nomographs; formulas; typical installation details; typical calculations.]  N. E. Battikha, CONDENSED HANDBOOK OF MEASUREMENT AND CONTROL (3rd Ed.), ISA, 2007. [Symbols; instrument and control valve selection; control loops; conversion factors; and other reference material.]  B. G. Lipták, INSTRUMENT ENGINEERS' HANDBOOK - PROCESS CONTROL AND OPTIMIZATION, 4th Ed., ISA, 2005 [Control theory; controller, transmitters, converters and relays; control centers, panels and displays; control valves, on-off and throttling; regulators; PLCs and other logic devices; DCS and computer-based systems; process control systems]  Bryon Lewis, CSE, PE, CONTROL SYSTEMS ENGINEERING EXAM REFERENCE MANUAL: A PRACTICAL STUDY GUIDE (1st Ed., 2007) [Reference material and information on control systems covering the major topical areas of the PE exam]

SPECIFIC KNOWLEDGE AREAS The following references cover one or more knowledge areas of the CSE exam identified in the exam specification (Appendix A). I. Measurement  B. G. Lipták, INSTRUMENT ENGINEERS' HANDBOOK - Process Measurement and Analysis (4th Ed.), ISA, 2005. [Instrument symbols, performance, and terminology; measurement of flow, level, temperature, pressure and density; safety, weight and miscellaneous sensors; analytical instrumentation]  D. R. Gillum, INDUSTRIAL PRESSURE, LEVEL AND DENSITY MEASUREMENT (2nd Ed.), ISA, 2009. [Fluid properties; gauges, transmitters and transducers; level measurement theory; hydrostatic head; electrical level measurements; liquid density measurement.]  R. W. Miller, FLOW MEASUREMENT ENGINEERING HANDBOOK (3rd Ed.), Gulf Publishing Company, Houston, TX, 1996. [Fluid properties; measurement; flowmeters; equations; design; installation.]

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 G. K. McMillan, ADVANCED pH MEASUREMENT AND CONTROL (3rd Ed.), ISA, 2005. [pH chemistry; titration curves; pH measurement; mixing equipment; control valves; control systems; controller tuning; checkout and troubleshooting.]  R. E. Sherman, ANALYTICAL INSTRUMENTATION, ISA, 1996.  R. H. Dieck, MEASUREMENT UNCERTAINTY (4th Ed.), ISA, 2007. [Basics; use of correlation; curve-fitting problems; probability plotting; combining different test methods; calibration errors; propagation of uncertainties] II. Signals and Transmission  L. M. Thompson, INDUSTRIAL DATA COMMUNICATIONS (4th Ed.), ISA, 2007. [Introduction; history; signals and codings; modems; serial and parallel communications; 100 MBps and 1000 MBps Ethernet; RIP and OSPF router technologies; OLE for Process Control (OPC); Active X, DCOM, virtual private networks; protocols and security]  P. S. Marshall and John S. Rinaldi, INDUSTRIAL ETHERNET (2nd Ed.), ISA, 2005. [Basics of common Ethernet-based networks including Modbus/TCP, EtherNet/IP, ProfiNet, Foundation Fieldbus HSE, IDA and wireless Ethernet; installation, maintenance, troubleshooting, and security tips]  I. Verhappen and A. Pereira, FOUNDATION FIELDBUS (3rd Ed.), ISA, 2009. [Foundation Fieldbus H1 protocol; installation tips; rules for cabling length; documentation; commissioning checklist; system sizing formulas; integrating with other systems]  J. Berge, FIELDBUSES FOR PROCESS CONTROL, ISA, 2002. [HART, FOUNDATION Fieldbus, and PROFIBUS-PA; Field-level and Ethernet-based host-level networking; capabilities; interoperability, integration and migration; availability and safety; benefits] III. Final Control Elements  Guy Borden (Ed.), CONTROL VALVES, ISA, 1998. [Control valves, body assemblies, actuators and accessories; design and construction; applications; safety; troubleshooting; maintenance; testing; standards; valve-related computer programs; regulators]  B. Fitzgerald, CONTROL VALVES FOR THE CHEMICAL PROCESS INDUSTRIES, Gulf Publishing Company, Houston, TX, 1995. [Basic types; design and material considerations; valve and actuator sizing; valve performance, installation and calibration; typical applications; loop tuning]

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 H. D. Baumann, CONTROL VALVE PRIMER (4th Ed.), ISA, 2009. [Control valves and control loops; selection and sizing; fail safety; flow characteristics; positioners; actuators; stem forces; installation; materials; environmental concerns; electric vs. pneumatic actuators]  D. W. Spitzer, VARIABLE SPEED DRIVES: PRINCIPLES AND APPLICATIONS (3rd Ed.), ISA, 2004. [Basics; utilities and costs; applications of control valves; alternate final control elements; variable-frequency drives; control valves vs. variable-speed drive applications; economics; applications]  D. Polka, MOTORS AND DRIVES, ISA, 2002. [Principles of DC and variable frequency AC drive technology; DC and AC motor and drive operations; step motors; AC vector motors; brushless servo motors; linear stepper and servo motors; tachometers, resolvers and encoders; drive system control methods; maintenance and troubleshooting] Also see standards ANSI/ISA-75.01.01-(IEC 60534-2-1 Mod)-2007–FLOW EQUATIONS FOR SIZING CONTROL VALVES and ANSI/ISA-75.05.012000 (R2005)–CONTROL VALVE TERMINOLOGY, as well as ASME VIII, BOILER AND PRESSURE VESSEL CODE. IV. Control Systems  T. McAvinew and R. D. Mulley, CONTROL SYSTEMS DOCUMENTATION: APPLYING SYMBOLS AND IDENTIFICATION (2nd Ed.), ISA, 2005. [Process flow diagrams; detailed flow sheets; logic symbols; loop diagrams; ladder diagrams, isometrics; installation details; location diagrams; document numbering.] Also see pertinent standards and recommended practices (such as ANSI/ISA 5.1-2009 for instrumentation symbols, loop and logic diagrams).  P. W. Murrill, FUNDAMENTALS OF PROCESS CONTROL THEORY (3rd Ed.), ISA, 2000. [Basic concepts; control loops; block diagrams; sensors and data transmission; typical measurements; controllers; control valves; process dynamics; controller tuning; cascade, feedforward and multivariable control; ratio, override and split-range control; dead-time control; nonlinear and adaptive control; direct digital control, supervisory, distributed and sequential or batch control; new directions; graphic symbols; glossary]  W. S. Levine, THE CONTROL HANDBOOK, CRC Press, Boca Raton, FL, 1996. [Mathematical foundations; dynamic models; analysis and design methods for continuous systems; digital control; nonlinear systems; analysis and design software; advanced control methods; identification; applications]

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 S. M. Herb, UNDERSTANDING DISTRIBUTED PROCESS SYSTEMS FOR CONTROL, ISA, 1999. [Introduction; evolution of plant-wide process control; computing devices; controller hardware and software structures; controller redundancy; user interfaces; alarms; networks, physical and logical structures; open communications standards; plant information; continuous and batch processes; system security; reliability, failures and faults; safety systems; control system implementation, justification, specification, vendor selection, testing and installation; importance of distributed control; future trends; glossary of terms and acronyms]  B. G. Lipták, INSTRUMENT ENGINEERS' HANDBOOK - Process Software and Digital Networks (4th Ed.), ISA, 2011. [Overall plant design; designing a safe plant; control center, workstation and logic design; buses and networks; software packages for control loop optimization, data reconciliation, and event-sequence recorders; batch control; plantwide control; miscellaneous data tables]  D. W. Spitzer, ADVANCED REGULATORY CONTROL: APPLICATIONS AND TECHNIQUES, Momentum Press, 2010. [Manual control; field devices; controllers; PID control; controller tuning; loop pairing; advanced regulatory control]  H. L. Wade, BASIC AND ADVANCED REGULATORY CONTROL: SYSTEM DESIGN AND APPLICATION, ISA, 2004. [Mathematical review; symbols and terminology; process characteristics; types of control loops; standard and modified PID control; tuning; ratio, cascade, feedforward, and selector control; interacting loops; modelbased control]  T. A. Hughes, PROGRAMMABLE CONTROLLERS (4th Ed.), ISA, 2005. [Introduction; numbering systems and codes; logic system fundamentals; electrical design; input/output system; memory and storage; basic and high-level programming languages; data communication systems; applications; installation and maintenance] V. Safety Systems  William M. Hawkins and T. G. Fisher, BATCH CONTROL SYSTEMS: DESIGN, APPLICATION AND IMPLEMENTATION, ISA, 2006. [Terminology; characteristics; architecture; communications; database management; general requirements; safety interlock systems; regulatory and sequence control; scheduling; recipes; design approach; system hardware; reliability/availability; costs, benefits and justification]  W. M. Goble, CONTROL SYSTEM SAFETY EVALUATION & RELIABILITY (3rd Ed.), ISA, 2010. [Analytical tools including Fault Tree Analysis (FTA), Reliability Block Diagrams (RBD), Failure Modes and Effects Analysis (FMEA), Markov modeling; component failure

16

modes; on-line diagnostics; common cause; software reliability; operational safety; design rules]  P. Gruhn and H. L. Cheddie, SAFETY INSTRUMENTED SYSTEMS: DESIGN, ANALYSIS AND JUSTIFICATION, ISA, 2005. [Design life cycle; risk; process vs. safety control; protection layers; developing requirement specifications per ISA-84.01; safety integrity level; choosing a technology; initial system evaluation; field device issues; hardware and management considerations; installation; testing; changes; justification; design checklist; case study]  E. M. Marszal and E. W. Scharpf, SAFETY INTEGRITY LEVEL SELECTION, ISA, 2002. [Selecting safety integrity levels for safety instrumented systems (SIS), accounting for existing layers of protection; quantitative risk analysis]  E. C. Magison, ELECTRICAL INSTRUMENTS IN HAZARDOUS LOCATIONS, ISA, 1998. [Area and material classification; hazard reduction; ignition of gases and vapors; intrinsic safety; explosionproof housings; pressurization; standards; inspection, maintenance, testing and calibration; testing laboratory certification; dust hazards] VI. Codes and Standards The following material lists codes and standards relevant to the practice of CSE. The source, number and title of the codes or standards are given. Because there are so many applicable codes and standards, it is not expected that CSEs will memorize all their provisions, or bring copies of all of them to the exam. When feasible, if exam problems call for details of a code or standard, the needed information will be supplied as part of the problem statement. ISA The International Society of Automation P.O. Box 12277 Research Triangle Park, NC 27709 (919) 549-8411  ANSI/ISA-5.1-2009 - INSTRUMENTATION SYMBOLS AND IDENTIFICATION  ISA-5.2-1976 (R1992) - BINARY LOGIC DIAGRAMS FOR PROCESS OPERATIONS  ISA-5.3-1983 - GRAPHIC SYMBOLS FOR DISTRIBUTED CONTROL/ SHARED DISPLAY INSTRUMENTATION, LOGIC, AND COMPUTER SYSTEMS  ISA-5.4-1991 - STANDARD INSTRUMENT LOOP DIAGRAMS

17

 ANSI/ISA-12.00.01-2002 - ELECTRICAL APPARATUS FOR USE IN CLASS I, ZONE 0, 1, & 2 HAZARDOUS (CLASSIFIED) LOCATIONS  ISA-RP12.4-1996 - PRESSURIZED ENCLOSURES  ISA-18.1-1979 (R2004) - ANNUNCIATOR SEQUENCES AND TERMINOLOGY  ISA-51.1-1979 (R1993) - PROCESS INSTRUMENTATION TERMINOLOGY  ANSI/ISA-75.01.01 (IEC 60534-2-1 Mod)-2007 - FLOW EQUATIONS FOR SIZING CONTROL VALVES  ANSI/ISA-75.11.01-1985 (R2002) - INHERENT FLOW CHARACTERISTICS AND RANGEABILITY OF CONTROL VALVES  ANSI/ISA-84.00.01-2004 Part 1 (IEC 61511-1 Mod) - FUNCTIONAL SAFETY: SAFETY INSTRUMENTED SYSTEMS FOR THE PROCESS INDUSTRY SECTOR - PART 1: FRAMEWORK, DEFINITIONS, SYSTEM, HARDWARE AND SOFTWARE REQUIREMENTS  ANSI/ISA-84.00.01-2004 Part 2 (IEC 61511-2 Mod) - FUNCTIONAL SAFETY: SAFETY INSTRUMENTED SYSTEMS FOR THE PROCESS INDUSTRY SECTOR - PART 2: GUIDELINES FOR THE APPLICATION OF ANSI/ISA-84.00.01-2004 PART 1 (IEC 61511-1 MOD) – INFORMATIVE  ANSI/ISA-84.00.01-2004 Part 3 (IEC 61511-3 Mod) - FUNCTIONAL SAFETY: SAFETY INSTRUMENTED SYSTEMS FOR THE PROCESS INDUSTRY SECTOR - PART 3: GUIDANCE FOR THE DETERMINIATION OF THE REQUIRED SAFETY INTEGRITY LEVELS - INFORMATIVE  ISA-MC96.1-1982 - TEMPERATURE MEASUREMENT THERMOCOUPLES  ISA-RP60.3-1985 - HUMAN ENGINEERING FOR CONTROL CENTERS  ANSI/ISA-60079-0 (12.00.01)-2009 - EXPLOSIVE ATMOSPHERES PART O: EQUIPMENT - GENERAL REQUIREMENTS ANSI American National Standards Institute 25 W 43rd Street New York, NY 10036 (212) 642-4900  ANSI/ASME PTC 19.1-2005 - MEASUREMENT UNCERTAINTY

18

 ANSI/ASME PTC 19.2-1987 (R1998) - PRESSURE MEASUREMENT INSTRUMENTS AND APPARATUS  ASME PTC 19.3 TW 2010 - THERMOWELLS - PERFORMANCE TEST CODES  ASME PTC 19.22-2001 - DATA ACQUISITION SYSTEMS API American Petroleum Institute 1220 L Street, NW Washington, DC 20005-4070 (202) 682-8000  ANSI/API Spec 5L - SPECIFICATION FOR LINE PIPE, Forty-fourth Edition  API RP 500 (R2002) - RECOMMENDED PRACTICE FOR CLASSIFICATION OF LOCATIONS FOR ELECTRICAL INSTALLATIONS AT PETROLEUM FACILITIES CLASSIFIED AS CLASS I, DIVISION I AND DIVISION 2, 2nd Edition  ANSI/API RP 505 - RECOMMENDED PRACTICE FOR CLASSIFICATION OF LOCATIONS FOR ELECTRICAL INSTALLATIONS AT PETROLEUM FACILITIES CLASSIFIED AS CLASS I, ZONE 0, AND ZONE 2, 1st Edition  API Std 520 - SIZING, SELECTION, AND INSTALLATION OF PRESSURE-RELIEVING DEVICES IN REFINERIES, PART I - SIZING AND SELECTION, Eighth Edition  API RP 521 - GUIDE FOR PRESSURE-RELIEVING AND DEPRESSURING SYSTEMS, 4th Edition ASME American Society of Mechanical Engineers Three Park Avenue (800) 843-2763 (U.S/Canada) New York, NY 10016-5990 001-800-843-2763 (Mexico) (973) 882-1170 (outside North America)  ASME Section I 2010 - ASME BOILER AND PRESSURE VESSEL CODE, SECTION I: RULES FOR CONSTRUCTION OF POWER BOILERS  ASME Section IV 2010 - ASME BOILER AND PRESSURE VESSEL CODE, SECTION IV: HEATING BOILERS  ASME Section VIII SET 2010 - ASME BOILER & PRESSURE VESSEL CODE - SECTION VIII - PRESSURE VESSELS  ANSI/ASME B16.5-2009 - PIPE FLANGES AND FLANGED FITTINGS: NPS 1/2 THROUGH NPS 24 METRIC/INCH STANDARD

19

 ASME B31.9 - EDITION: 11 BUILDING SERVICES PIPING  ASME/ANSI MFC Series (All 23) (see http://www.asme.org/kb/ standards#des=MFC,searchBy=MFC) IEC International Electrotechnical Commission 3, rue de Varembé P.O. Box 131 CH - 1211 Geneva 20 - Switzerland +41 22 919 02 11  IEC 60529 - Degrees of Protection Provided by Enclosures (IP Code)  IEC 60079-7 Edition 4 (2006-07) - EXPLOSIVE ATMOSPHERES - PART 7: EQUIPMENT PROTECTION BY INCREASED SAFETY "e"  IEC 60079-10-1 Edition 1.0 (2008-12) - EXPLOSIVE ATMOSPHERES PART 10-1: CLASSIFICATION OF AREAS - EXPLOSIVE GAS ATMOSPHERES  IEC 60079-10-2 Edition 1.0 (2009-04) - EXPLOSIVE ATMOSPHERES PART 10-2: CLASSIFICATION OF AREAS - COMBUSTIBLE DUST ATMOSPHERES  IEC 60079-11 Edition 6.0 (2011-06) - EXPLOSIVE ATMOSPHERES PART 11: EQUIPMENT PROTECTION BY INTRINSIC SAFETY "i" NFPA National Fire Protection Association 1 Batterymarch Park Quincy, MA 02269-9101 (617) 770-3000  No. 70 - NATIONAL ELECTRICAL CODE HANDBOOK  No. 72 - NATIONAL FIRE ALARM AND SIGNALING CODE, 2010  No. 85 - BOILER & COMBUSTION SYSTEM HAZARDS CODE  No. 496 - STANDARD FOR PURGED & PRESSURIZED ENCLOSURES FOR ELECTRICAL EQUIPMENT  No. 497 - RECOMMENDED PRACTICE FOR THE CLASSIFICATION OF FLAMMABLE LIQUIDS, GASES OR VAPORS AND OF HAZARDOUS (CLASSIFIED) LOCATIONS FOR ELECTRICAL INSTALLATIONS IN CHEMICAL PROCESS AREAS NEMA National Electrical Manufacturers Association Suite 1847 1300 North 17th Street Rosslyn, VA 22209 (703) 841-3200  ICS 6-1993 (R2001, R2006) - ENCLOSURES

20

IEEE Institute of Electrical & Electronics Engineers 445 Hoes Lane Piscataway, NJ 08854-1331 (732) 981-0060  S 315A-1986 - SUPPLEMENT TO GRAPHIC SYMBOLS FOR ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONICS DIAGRAMS  ANSI/IEEE 488-1-1987 - IEEE STANDARD DIGITAL INTERFACE FOR PROGRAMMABLE INSTRUMENTATION  802.1-QBB-2011 - IEEE APPROVED DRAFT STANDARD FOR LOCAL AND METROPOLITAN AREA NETWORKS - VIRTUAL BRIDGED LOCAL AREA NETWORKS - AMENDEMENT: PRIORITYBASED FLOW CONTROL  991-1986 - IEEE STANDARD FOR LOGIC CIRCUIT DIAGRAMS OSHA Occupational Safety & Health Administration 200 Constitution Avenue NW Washington, DC 20210 (202) 693-2000  1910 OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH STANDARDS, SUBPART H, HAZARDOUS MATERIALS 1910.119, PROCESS SAFETY MANAGEMENT OF HIGHLY HAZARDOUS CHEMICALS

Readers of this booklet are urged to submit information (name of author(s), title, edition, publisher’s name and address, date of publication, and description of contents) for other pertinent references, codes or standards to: ISA, P.O. Box 12277 Research Triangle Park, NC 27709 Phone: (919) 549-8411 FAX: (919) 549-8288 so they can be included in future editions of the CSE Study Guide.

21

APPENDIX A CSE EXAM SPECIFICATION The following page shows the official NCEES exam specification, in the form distributed by its member boards. The specification shows six major areas of activity for control systems engineers, identified as I through VI, with a descriptive title and the fraction of the exam (expressed in percent) devoted to that area. For each area of activity, associated sub-areas of knowledge are indicated.

23

NCEES Principles and Practice of Engineering Examination CONTROL SYSTEMS Exam Specifications Effective Beginning with the October 2011 Examinations •

The exam is an 8-hour open-book exam. It contains 40 multiple-choice questions in the 4-hour morning session, and 40 multiple-choice questions in the 4-hour afternoon session. Examinee works all questions.

•

The exam uses both the International System of units (SI) and the US Customary System (USCS).

•

The exam is developed with questions that will require a variety of approaches and methodologies, including design, analysis, and application.

•

The knowledge areas specified as examples of kinds of knowledge are not exclusive or exhaustive categories.

Approximate Percentage of Examination

20%

I. Measurement A. Sensor technologies applicable to the desired type of measurement (e.g., flow, pressure, level, temperature, analytical, counters, motion, vision) B. Sensor characteristics (e.g., rangeability, accuracy and precision, temperature effects, response times, reliability, repeatability) C. Material compatibility D. Calculations involved in pressure drop E. Calculations involved in flow element sizing F. Calculations involved in level, differential pressure G. Calculations involved in unit conversions H. Calculations involved in velocity I. Calculations involved in linearization J. Installation details (e.g., process, pneumatic, electrical, location)

15% 5%

24

II. Signals, Transmission, and Networking A. Signals 1. Pneumatic, electronic, optical, hydraulic, digital, analog, buses 2. Transducers (e.g., analog/digital [A/D], digital/analog [D/A], current/pneumatic [I/P] conversion) 3. Intrinsically safe (IS) barriers

5%

5%

20% 8.75%

3.75%

4. Grounding, shielding, segregation, AC coupling 5. Basic signal circuit design (e.g., two-wire, four-wire, isolated outputs, loop powering, buses) 6. Circuit calculations (voltage, current, impedance) 7. Unit conversion calculations B. Transmission 1. Different communications systems architecture and protocols (e.g., fiber optics, coaxial cable, wireless, paired conductors, buses, Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol [TCP/IP], OPC) 2. Distance considerations versus transmission medium (e.g., data rates, sample rates) C. Networking (e.g., routers, bridges, switches, firewalls, gateways, network loading, error checking, bandwidth, crosstalk, parity)

III.Final Control Elements A. Valves 1. Types (e.g., globe, ball, butterfly) 2. Characteristics (e.g., linear, low noise, equal percentage, shutoff class) 3. Calculation (e.g., sizing, split range, noise, actuator, speed, pressure drop, air/gas consumption) 4. Selection of motive power (e.g., hydraulic, pneumatic, electric) 5. Applications of fluid dynamics (e.g., cavitation, flashing, choked flow, Joule-Thompson effects, two-phase) 6. Material selection based on process characteristics (e.g., erosion, corrosion, plug, extreme pressure, temperature) 7. Accessories (e.g., limit switches, solenoid valves, positioners, transducers, air regulators, servo amp) 8. Environmental constraints (e.g., fugitive emissions, packing, special sealing) 9. Installation practices (e.g., vertical, horizontal, bypasses, location, troubleshooting) B. Pressure Relieving Devices 1. Pressure relieving valve types (e.g., conventional spring, balanced bellows, pilot operated) 2. Pressure relieving valve characteristics (e.g., modulating, pop action) 3. Pressure relieving valve calculations (e.g., sizing considering inlet pressure drop, back pressure, multiple valves)

25

5%

2.5%

22% 5%

7%

10%

26

4. Pressure relieving device material selections based on process characteristics 5. Pressure relieving valve installation practices (e.g., linking valves, sparing the valves, accessibility for testing, car sealing inlet valves, piping installation) 6. Rupture discs (e.g., types, characteristics, application, calculations) C. Motor Controls 1. Types (e.g., motor starters, variable speed drives) 2. Applications (e.g., speed control, soft starters, valve actuators) 3. Calculations (e.g., sizing, tuning, location) 4. Accessories (e.g., encoders, positioners, relays, limit switches) 5. Troubleshooting (e.g., root cause failure analysis and correction) D. Other Final Control Elements 1. Solenoid valves (e.g., types, sizing) 2. On-off devices/relays (e.g., types, applications) 3. Self-regulating devices (e.g., types, sizing, pressure, temperature, level, and flow regulators)

IV.Control Systems A. Drawings (e.g., process flow diagrams, P&IDs, loop diagrams, ladder diagrams, logic drawings, cause and effects drawings, electrical drawings) B. Theory 1. Basic processes (e.g., compression, combustion, evaporation, distillation, hydraulics, reaction, dehydration, heat exchangers, crystallization, filtration) 2. Process dynamics (e.g., loop response, pressure-volumetemperature relationships, simulations) 3. Basic control (e.g., regulatory control, feedback, feed forward, cascade, ratio, PID, split-range) 4. Discrete control (e.g., relay logic, Boolean algebra) 5. Sequential control e.g., batch, assembly, conveying, CNC) C. Implementation 1. HMI (e.g., graphics, alarm management, trending, historical data) 2. Configuration and programming (e.g., PLC, DCS, hybrid systems, SQL, ladder logic, sequential function chart, structured text, function block programming, data base management, specialized controllers)

3. System comparisons and compatibilities (e.g., advantages and disadvantages of system architecture, distributed architecture, remote I/O, buses) 4. Installation requirements (e.g., shielding, constructability, input/ output termination, environmental, heat load calculations, power load requirements, purging, lighting) 5. Network security (e.g., firewalls, routers, switches, protocols) 6. System testing (e.g., factory acceptance test, integrated system test, site acceptance test) 7. Commissioning (e.g., performance tuning, loop checkout) 8. Troubleshooting (e.g., root cause failure analysis and correction)

15% 2.5% 5%

7.5%

8%

V. Safety Systems A. Basic documentation (e.g., safety requirements specification, logic diagrams, test procedures, SIL selection report) B. Theory 1. Reliability (e.g., bathtub curve, failure rates) 2. SIL selection (e.g., risk matrix, risk graph, LOPA) C. Implementation 1. Safety system design (e.g., I/O assignments, redundancy, segregation, software design) 2. Safety integrity level (SIL) verification calculations 3. Testing (e.g., methods, procedures, documentation) 4. Management of change (e.g., scope of change, impact of change)

VI.Codes, Standards, and Regulations A. B. C. D. E. F. G. H. I. J.

American National Standards Institute (ANSI) American Petroleum Institute (API) American Society of Mechanical Engineers (ASME) International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC) Institute of Electrical & Electronics Engineers (IEEE) International Society of Automation (ISA) National Electrical Code (NEC) National Electrical Manufacturers Association (NEMA) National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) Occupational Safety & Health Administration (OSHA)

27

APPENDIX B SAMPLE QUESTIONS This is the fifth study guide published for the CSE exam. The following questions have been assembled from various sources, including past exams in CSE and other disciplines, and some have been written specifically for this publication. The following questions are intended to illustrate the types of questions which may be encountered in the CSE exam. Questions in this study guide will NOT appear in future exams. The following set of questions conforms to the NCEES exam specification in having the prescribed number of questions for each listed topic. Half of the questions are numbered 101 to 140 for the morning or AM part of the exam; the others are numbered 501 to 540 for the afternoon or PM part. To the extent possible, questions on a particular topic are divided equally between the two parts of the exam. Because the following questions resemble an actual exam, candidates wishing to evaluate their performance under test conditions can do so. Select a time and place where you will not be interrupted, assemble the materials you would take to the actual exam, and allow yourself up to four hours for each half of the exam. To create an answer form, use a sheet from a pad of lined writing paper; make four columns, numbered 101-120, 121-140, 501-520, and 521-540. Do not check your answers while you are taking the exam; wait until you are finished with both parts. Answers and/or solutions are given separately, in Appendix C, so that users of the study guide can read the questions and record their responses without simultaneous exposure to the answers. Answers in Appendix C are identified by topic areas, so you can easily see which areas require the most attention in preparing to take the actual exam. Candidates should understand that any one CSE exam can cover only some of the areas of activity and knowledge listed in the exam specification. Thus, the following questions do not necessarily deal with all of the possible sub-areas of CSE activity or knowledge that may appear in future CSE exams. Likewise, while an effort was made to match the level of difficulty of actual exams, the match may not be exact. Variations in difficulty from exam to exam are considered in setting the passing scores. For this reason, candidates should view their ability to answer the sample questions as an indication of where to focus their preparatory efforts, not as a prediction of their success on the actual exams.

29

Morning Session

31

101.

102.

32

The flow rate of a clean, low-viscosity liquid is to be measured as the process input to a flow control loop. The loop has a 4:1 turndown ratio, and the accuracy requirement is 2%. The flow rate is best measured using a(n): (A)

Thermal

(B)

Positive displacement meter

(C)

Pitot tube

(D)

Orifice plate

On-line measurement of the 90% point of a gasoline blending component is best done using a: (A)

Liquid chromatograph

(B)

Mass spectrometer

(C)

Boiling point analyzer

(D)

Infrared analyzer

Morning Session 103.

A differential pressure transmitter LT-100 is used to monitor the level in a horizontal storage vessel V-100. The vessel holds hot water which is manually filled and drained by valves V-1 and V-2. The pressure taps on the vessel for LT-100 are 60 inches apart and the transmitter is mounted 10 inches below the bottom process tap. The transmitter’s process tubing is routed 10 feet horizontally before dropping vertically to the transmitter. The following data apply: Ambient temperature: 80°F (always) Normal Operating pressure: 100 psig (PIC-101) Normal operating temperature: 280°F (TIC-102) Seal fluid for reference leg of level transmitter: Specific gravity = 0.8 at 60°F = 0.62 at 80°F = 0.32 at 280°F Boiling point = 520°F at 0 psig The other leg of the level transmitter contains process fluid.

The span of the transmitter, in inches of water, is: (A)

19.2

(B)

37.2

(C)

55.7

(D)

60.0

33

104.

105.

106.

34

You must provide a tank gaging system for a liquified natural gas (LNG) tank. LNG is a cryogenic liquid and is stored at near atmospheric pressure. Under certain conditions, the LNG can stratify and potentially lead to unsafe conditions. The best choice to provide reliable, safe operation of the LNG tank would be: (A)

Radar type with independent multi-point temperature indication that provides a temperature profile of the tank

(B)

Differential pressure with multiple temperature indicators located at low liquid level around the diameter of the tank

(C)

Servo-type that provides liquid level plus temperature and density profiles

(D)

Float type with an independent multi-point temperature for tank temperature profile and hydrostatic density indication

A liquid with an S.G. of 0.8 flows to a pump at 100 psig. The viscosity of the liquid is 3 cP, the molecular weight is 94, and the temperature is 15°C. The pump supplies 100 ft of head. Piping losses are insignificant. The pressure (psig) at the inlet to the control valve will be most nearly:

(A)

35

(B)

44

(C)

135

(D)

154

TK-1 has a capacity of 30,000 barrels (US). It is required to fill TK-1 in 6 hours. FV-1 will need to be sized for a flow rate (gpm) of most nearly:

(A)

3,500

(B)

5,000

(C)

7,143

(D)

21,000

Morning Session 107.

108.

109.

Which of the following Gas Chromatograph (GC) detector types is most appropriate for measuring low concentrations of sulfur in hydrocarbon fuels? (A)

Thermal Conductivity (TCD)

(B)

Flame ionization (FID)

(C)

Flame photometric (PFD)

(D)

Electron capture (ECD)

Which pair of devices listed below are most likely to be hazardous gas/gas environment detectors? (A)

Catalytic bead, piezo-electric adsorption

(B)

P2O5, infrared

(C)

Catalytic bead, open path

(D)

Electrochemical, thermal conductivity

A safety barrier limits the energy transfer to a hazardous location by limiting the maximum current (using a fuse) and shunting any high-voltage faults in the safe area to a safety ground (through Zener diodes). Which of the following considerations does NOT apply to a shunt Zener Diode barrier?

110.

(A)

Requires an intrinsically safe ground

(B)

Can cause voltage drop problems

(C)

Is expensive and difficult to use

(D)

Fuse can blow during startup

A control loop of a DCS consists of an isolated 4–20 mA output and a grounded control element. A remote indicating device must be installed between the DCS and the control element. The indicating device has an input range of 1-5 V and is referenced to ground. Which of the following components (I/I is a current-to-current converter) is/are required to give a full-scale reading of the indicating device without affecting the control element? (A)

100-Ω resistor only

(B)

I/I and 100-Ω resistor

(C)

250-Ω resistor only

(D)

I/I and 250-Ω resistor

35

111.

112.

113.

114.

Which of the following statements about wireless (radio) data transmission systems for use in plantwide data collection and control applications is FALSE? (A)

Wireless systems can have unlimited numbers of data links.

(B)

Wireless systems are easier to install than wired or cable systems.

(C)

Wireless systems do not eliminate the need to deliver power to sensor and/or controller locations.

(D)

Wireless systems can be made highly resistant to ambient electrical noise.

Which of the following practices is important in routing fiber optic cable? (A)

Laying cable in trays with high-horsepower motor wiring should be avoided

(B)

Conduit fittings that required small-radius bends should be avoided

(C)

Overhead runs on messenger wires should be limited to 75 feet

(D)

Underground fiber optic runs must be covered with concrete

What is the principle advantage of a fieldbus installation over traditional 4–20 mA with HART protocol? (A)

Lower cost field devices

(B)

Device reaction time

(C)

Device diagnostic coverage

(D)

Lower cost field cabling

What physical network topology provides fault tolerance? I

Ring

II Star III Bus IV Mesh

36

(A)

I * IV

(B)

I * II

(C)

II * IV

(D)

All of these

Morning Session 115.

A control valve, originally supplied for gaseous service, in now being considered for a liquid service application. Original Service Conditions: Maximum capacity= 60,000 SCFH ΔP for valve sizing= 50 PSI Gas molecular weight= 44 Inlet pressure = 300 PSIG Inlet temperature= 120°F New Service Conditions: ΔP for valve sizing= 10 PSI Liquid specific gravity= 0.81 Inlet pressure = 240 PSIG The valve coefficient Cv for the original service conditions is approximately equal to: (A)

4.8

(B)

6.9

(C)

8.5

(D)

10.4

37

116.

117.

118.

119.

38

Which of the following statements about control valve installation practices is false? (A)

At least 10-20 pipe diameters of straight run inlet piping should be provided upstream of control valves.

(B)

At least 3-5 pipe diameters of straight run piping should be provided downstream of control valves.

(C)

Diaphragm-actuated control valves must be installed with the stem in a vertical (upward) position.

(D)

Valves must be installed with the flow arrow in the correct direction.

Which of the following statements about control valve installation practices is false? (A)

If the material is not hazardous, vent lines are not needed for fluid trapped between stop valves.

(B)

Valves must be located where an operator can see indicators or gages needed for manual control.

(C)

Lines should be flushed or blown out before valve installation.

(D)

Higher flow velocities are allowed in gas lines than in liquid or steam lines.

A suggestion is made that a rising stem globe valve should be replaced with a rotary stem ball valve. Which of the following statements is correct? (A)

The ball valve Cv would likely be too large for the application.

(B)

The piping would need to be changed because the ball valve will likely be longer than the globe valve.

(C)

Using a ball valve would not allow use of a diaphragm-type actuator.

(D)

Ball valves are not used for modulating control.

The applicable ASME (American Society of Mechanical Engineers) code limits the maximum superimposed constant backpressure on pressure relief devices to what value? (A)

Set pressure including effect of static head and backpressure

(B)

Set pressure including effect of static head

(C)

Fluid critical pressure

(D)

55 percent above set pressure

Morning Session 120.

What is the maximum vessel pressure (in psig) allowed by ASME Code Section VIII when only PSV-1 is in service and relieving? FLARE HEADER

PSV 2

PSV 1 CSO

PCV

CSO

GAS FLOW OUT

GAS FLOW IN NLL

LC

10 FT.

4 FT.

LV LIQUID OUT

Vessel Data: Max Allowable Working Pressure (MAWP): 200 psig Dimensions: 4’ OD, 10’ cylinder, elliptical heads Normal liquid level: 3.5’ Operating pressure: 150 psig Operating temperature: 100°F Process Data: Inlet gas flow: 80,000 lb/hr Molecular weight: 19 (A)

200

(B)

210

(C)

220

(D)

230

Liquid flow: 60 gpm SG: 0.590

39

121.

40

What is the most acceptable, cost-effective method for protecting a safety relief valve in corrosive service? (A)

Inert gas purge

(B)

Reverse-buckling rupture disk

(C)

Standard rupture disk

(D)

Wetted parts of non-corrosive materials

Morning Session 122.

How would you insert a DCS RUN/STOP using a single DO into a motor control which uses a local momentary START/STOP where the local stop can shutdown the motor?

A)

H

EMER STOP LCL

EMER STOP SIS

LCL STOP

LCL START

N M

MX

RUN

B)

H

EMER STOP LCL

EMER STOP SIS

LCL STOP

MX

STOP

STATUS

LCL START

N M

MX

MX

RUN/STOP

STATUS

C) H

EMER STOP LCL

EMER STOP SIS

LCL STOP

LCL START

N M

MX

MX

RUN/STOP

D)

H

EMER STOP LCL

EMER STOP SIS

LCL STOP

STATUS

LCL START

N M

MX

STOP

RUN

MX

STATUS

41

123.

An HVAC blower has a shutdown from a building fire detection/protection panel for Confirmed Fire. Which of the following motor controls is the most correct?

A)

H

EMER STOP LCL

EMER STOP SIS

LCL HOA

HVAC PANEL RUN/STOP

OFF

FIRE DETECTED STOP

AUTO

N M

HAND MX

EOL

STATUS

B)

H

EMER STOP LCL

EMER STOP SIS

LCL HOA

HVAC PANEL RUN/STOP

OFF

FIRE DETECTED STOP

AUTO

N M

HAND MX

STATUS

C)

H

EMER STOP LCL

EMER STOP SIS

LCL HOA

HVAC PANEL RUN/STOP

OFF

FIRE DETECTED STOP

AUTO

N M

HAND EOL

MX

STATUS

D)

H

EMER STOP LCL

EMER STOP SIS

LCL HOA

HVAC PANEL RUN/STOP

OFF AUTO

FIRE DETECTED STOP

N M

HAND MX

STATUS

42

Morning Session 124.

According to ANSI/ISA-5.1-2009, which of the following is the symbol for a pressurereducing regulator with an external pressure tap:

125.

The logic diagram on the next page depicts the control scheme for an acid injection pump used to control the pH in a plant water system. The control of the pump in performed exclusively by a Programmable Logic Controller (PLC). The “HOA” local hand switch is spring return to “OFF” from the “HAND” position. The combination of OR-gate “C” with AND-gate “D” is commonly referred to as: (A)

A flip-flop circuit

(B)

An exclusive-OR circuit

(C)

A seal circuit

(D)

An inverter

43

44

Morning Session 126.

Refer to the sketch shown below, where two liquid feed streams are combined for a certain mixing operation to produce a single stream (product). FLOW CONTROL LOOP #1 INPUT STREAM #1

PRODUCT OUT FLOW CONTROL LOOP #3

INPUT STREAM #2 FLOW CONTROL LOOP #2

Based on the conservation requirements, what are the degrees of freedom of this system? (A)

One degree of freedom

(B)

Two degrees of freedom

(C)

Three degrees of freedom

(D)

None of the above

45

127.

The response of a system to a 1-unit step input is shown below.

The data obtained from this test include: Peak value of unit step response = 0.5815 Steady-state value of unit step response = 0.500 Time to peak value of unit step response = 0.907 seconds Assuming that the system can be described by a second-order differential equation: The damping ratio is most nearly:

46

(A)

0.4

(B)

0.5

(C)

0.6

(D)

0.7

Morning Session 128.

Estimate the integral time for Integrated Absolute Error and the resulting damped cycle period under integral control. 1) Process Time Delay is 0.3 minutes. 2) A 20% change in feeder setpoint causes 28% change in mass flow rate.

Motor

Variable Speed Drive

129.

FC Flow Set Point

(A)

I = 45sec, τ0 = 9 sec

(B)

I = 23 sec, τ0 = 129 sec

(C)

I = 1 sec, τ0 = 2 sec

(D)

I = 45 sec, τ0 = 129 sec

Variable Speed Feeder

WT Weight

According to ISA-5.5-1985 concerning graphic symbols for use on Visual Display Units (VDUs), the generic term for cathode-ray tube or solid-state display devices, which of the following statements is true: I

Materials flows must be depicted in a left-to-right direction.

II Symbols for unimportant process equipment can be omitted in displays. III An outline symbol indicates a stopped or inactive status, and a solid (filled) symbol indicates a running or active status. IV Red means “closed” or “off,” while green means “open” or “on.” (A)

I and III

(B)

I and IV

(C)

II and III

(D)

I, II, III and IV

47

130.

Consider the application of a hydrogen sulfide (H2S) analyzer that a plant is installing for personnel protection. The maximum permissible level of H2S for an 8-hour (weighted average) exposure is 20 ppm (parts per million). A dose of 150 ppm or more for a short time can cause permanent injury or possibly death. The human nose can detect 1 ppm levels but is desensitized quickly with continuing exposure. The range of the H2S analyzer is 0-20 ppm. The most appropriate setting for the alarm point (in ppm) would be:

131.

(A)

0 - 4.9

(B)

5.0 - 9.9

(C)

10.0 - 14.9

(D)

15.0 or higher

A poorly-tuned PID control loop has consistently responded too slowly to load disturbances because of a noise-free, but slow measurement device. An appropriate action to accelerate the disturbance response would be to: I

Increase the controller’s gain (decrease the proportional band).

II Increase the controller’s integral action (increase the reset rate). III Decrease the controller’s integral action (decrease the reset rate). IV Increase the controller’s derivative action (increase the derivative time).

132.

48

(A)

I and II

(B)

I and III

(C)

III

(D)

IV

A poorly-tuned PID control loop has consistently overcompensated for low humidity conditions in a humidity-controlled room by injecting too much steam into the air supply duct. An appropriate action to reduce the overshoot problem would be to: (A)

Re-tune the loop for a critically-damped step response.

(B)

Re-tune the loop for a under-damped step response.

(C)

Re-tune the loop for a 1/4-wave decay step response.

(D)

Re-tune the loop to minimize rise time.

Morning Session 133.

134.

135.

136.

What is the best definition of a safety integrity level (SIL)? (A)

A percentage (between 0 and 100) used to define the availability requirements of a safety instrumented function.

(B)

A discrete number (one through four) used to define the performance requirements of a safety instrumented function.

(C)

A probability (between 0 and 1) used to define the likelihood of a dangerous failure of a safety instrumented function.

(D)

A percentage (between 0 and 100) used to define the ratio of the safe failure rate and the total failure rate.

Safety integrity levels are selected for each: (A)

Process unit or area

(B)

Piece of equipment

(C)

Safety instrumented system

(D)

Safety instrumented function

What is the best definition of a safety life cycle? (A)

The total length of time that a device remains functional.

(B)

The activities involved in the development of the safety requirements specification.

(C)

The total length of time that a process facility remains operational.

(D)

The necessary activities involved in the implementation of safety instrumented functions.

What are the best factors to base safety system test intervals on? (A)

Corporate policies, regulatory requirements, process operating parameters.

(B)

Performance targets, equipment failure rates, equipment configuration/ redundancy.

(C)

Manufacturer recommendations, environmental factors, age of the plant.

(D)

Recommendations of peers, production requirements, bypass capabilities.

49

137.

138.

139.

140.

50

Which is the best reason for performing Management Of Change? (A)

Recording all changes made to systems for tracking purposes.

(B)

Ensuring that documentation reflects the actual plant design.

(C)

Informing upper level management of changes made to systems.

(D)

Ensuring that safety is maintained despite changes made to systems.

According to ISA-5.2-1976 (R1992)-Binary Logic Diagrams for Process Operations, which of the following statements about this standard is FALSE? (A)

The symbols defined in this standard can be used to implement logic functions in any type of hardware — electronic, electric, fluidic, pneumatic, mechanical, etc.

(B)

Symbols from different standards cannot be used in the same logic diagram.

(C)

The flow of intelligence in a logic diagram is normally left to right, top to bottom.

(D)

The term “valve closed” is not the same as “valve not open.”

Field-mounted or outdoor instrumentation equipment in a wet, non-hazardous area with spray would need a: (A)

NEMA 1 enclosure.

(B)

NEMA 2 enclosure.

(C)

NEMA 3 enclosure.

(D)

NEMA 4 enclosure.

Coal grinding areas in a coal-fired steam power plant would be classified under hazardous area provisions of the National Electric Code (NEC) as: (A)

Class I, Group B

(B)

Class I, Group D

(C)

Class II, Group E

(D)

Class II, Group F

Afternoon Session

51

Afternoon Session 501.

A differential pressure transmitter LT-100 is used to monitor the level in a horizontal storage vessel V-100. The vessel holds hot water which is manually filled and drained by valves V-1 and V-2. The pressure taps on the vessel for LT-100 are 60 inches apart and the transmitter is mounted 10 inches below the bottom process tap. The transmitter’s process tubing is routed 10 feet horizontally before dropping vertically to the transmitter. The following data apply: Ambient temperature: 80°F (always) Normal Operating pressure: 100 psig (PIC-101) Normal operating temperature: 280°F (TIC-102) Seal fluid for reference leg of level transmitter: Specific gravity = 0.8 at 60°F = 0.62 at 80°F = 0.32 at 280°F Boiling point = 520°F at 0 psig The other leg of the level transmitter contains process fluid.

If LI-100 initially reads 50 percent and the pressure increases by 10 percent, the new reading of LI-100 at steady-state conditions would be (in percent): (A)

0

(B)

40

(C)

50

(D)

60

53

502.

To avoid flooding a distillation column, a differential pressure measurement is required across the top half of the column. The fluid entering the bottom of the column is similar to heavy crude oil. Due to the corrosive nature of the fluid, the bottom half of the column is clad with alloy steel. The bottom temperature is 1200°F. The product from the top of the column is light hydrocarbons at 250°F. The first available measurement point is on a platform at an elevation of 25 feet above grade. The elevation of the platform at the top of the column is 100 feet. Access to all platforms is by means of ladders. What transmitter(s) should be used?

503.

504.

54

(A)

One differential pressure transmitter

(B)

One differential pressure transmitter and two temperature transmitters

(C)

Two temperature transmitters

(D)

Two pressure transmitters

The flow of water in a 4-inch steel pipe is measured with an orifice plate and a differential pressure transmitter. At a flow rate of 120 gallons per minute (GPM), the differential pressure is 27 inches of water. At a flow rate of 176 GPM, the differential pressure will be most nearly equal to (A)

12

(B)

18

(C)

39

(D)

58

For measuring the flow of raw sewage in a 4-inch steel pipe at a flow rate of 150 gpm, which of the following sensing devices will provide the most reliable and maintenancefree installation? (A)

Coriolis flow meter

(B)

Magnetic flow meter

(C)

Orifice plate

(D)

Ultrasonic flow meter

Afternoon Session 505.

A tank level is measured using a differential pressure transmitter and a bubbler tube. The tank is vented to the atmosphere. The bubbler tube bottom is 1 foot above the tank bottom; the tank wall is 20 feet high. A 0-10 psi differential pressure gauge, accurate to 0.25 percent of full scale, is connected to the bubbler tube connection at the high-pressure side of the transmitter. The low-pressure side of the transmitter is connected to the tank top. When the water level in the tank is 14 feet, the gauge reading in pounds per square inch (psi) is most nearly equal to

506.

(A)

5.6

(B)

6.1

(C)

6.5

(D)

13.0

Which of the following statements are true? The accuracy of orifice-type flow elements is affected by: I

Upstream piping configuration

II Downstream piping configuration III Eccentricity of internal diameter of the meter run IV Entrained gas or air bubbles V Erosion of the hole bored in the orifice plate

507.

(A)

I and V only

(B)

II and IV only

(C)

I, II and V only

(D)

I, II, III, IV and V

For a gas-fired heater, the best choice for flame detection is a: (A)

Flame rod detector

(B)

Infrared detector

(C)

Silicon cell detector

(D)

Self-check UV detector

55

508.

Consider the application of a hydrogen sulfide (H2S) analyzer that a plant is installing for personnel protection. Assuming no mechanical problems or other limitations at the site, where should a field sensor be placed to provide the earliest possible warning of an excessive concentration of H2S?

509.

510.

511.

56

(A)

1 foot above ground

(B)

3 feet above ground

(C)

Eye level

(D)

15 feet above ground

In an area of high electromagnetic disturbances, the computer data transmission medium with the least noise pickup is: (A)

Fiber optics

(B)

Twisted pairs of copper conductors with shielding

(C)

Twisted pairs of copper conductors in conduit

(D)

Coaxial cable

In hazardous areas, intrinsically-safe circuits can be wired: (A)

Only in metal conduit.

(B)

Only in sealed or vented cables.

(C)

Only with automatic shutdown on electric power failure.

(D)

In the same way as in non-hazardous areas.

Comparing unshielded twisted pairs (UTP) with shielded twisted pairs (STP) for data transmission in a control system, which of the following statements is false? (A)

UTP is less expensive for materials and installation

(B)

STP is more resistant to electrical interference

(C)

UTP and STP are equally acceptable to vendors of LANs

(D)

UTP and STP can both be used at 5 million bits/second

Afternoon Session 512.

513.

514.

According to IEEE Standard 802.3, CSMA/CD Networks, a data transmission medium labeled “10BASE5” can be used up to: (A)

10 thousand bits per second and 50 feet

(B)

10 million bits per second and 500 feet

(C)

10 million bits per second and 500 meters

(D)

10 million bits per second and 5 kilometers

What is not a function of a network firewall in an industrial network application? (A)

Limiting bandwidth usage

(B)

Limiting unauthorized data access

(C)

Separation of network layers

(D)

Separation of control and safety systems

Which of the following is the international fieldbus standard? (A)

IEC 61131

(B)

IEC 61158

(C)

IEC 61508

(D)

None of the above

57

515.

A control valve, originally supplied for gaseous service, in now being considered for a liquid service application. Original Service Conditions: Maximum capacity= 60,000 SCFH ΔP for valve sizing= 50 PSI Gas molecular weight= 44 Inlet pressure = 300 PSIG Inlet temperature= 120°F New Service Conditions: ΔP for valve sizing= 10 PSI Liquid specific gravity= 0.81 Inlet pressure = 240 PSIG In the new service, assuming the maximum Cv = 12, the maximum flow in gallons per minute (gpm) is:

58

(A)

30.7

(B)

34.2

(C)

37.9

(D)

42.2

Afternoon Session 516.

Consider a gas flow control loop in manual, with the initial process conditions (A = upstream and B = downstream) as given in the figure below. All conditions remain constant other than the changes specified in each question. Subscripts 1 and 2 refer to the old and new conditions, respectively.

If only the open flow area (X) of the valve increased, which of the following best describes how the mass flow (F) would change?

517.

(A)

F2 = F1(X1/X2)0.5

(B)

F2 = F1(X2/X1)0.5

(C)

F2 = F1(X2/X1)

(D)

F2 = F1(X2/X1)2

Which of the following statements about control valve installation practices is FALSE? (A)

In locating valves, consideration must be given to the manufacturer’s recommended clearances and also to the positions of heating ducts and electrical wireways.

(B)

For safety reasons, valves must always go to a closed or open position on power failure.

(C)

To allow for plant expansion, it is common to initially select valves smaller than the connecting pipe.

(D)

Characteristics of the flowing material determine whether flanged, threaded or welded pipe joints can be used.

59

518.

You are to engineer a motor control system in a relay-based motor controller in the DCS with the following requirements: 1) Run status is to be displayed on the operator HMI 2) The motor is NOT to automatically restart after a power failure 3) You have 1-DI and 2-DO available How are the I/O to be configured and wired into the motor control circuit?

A.

H

EMER STOP LCL

EMER STOP SIS

LCL STOP

DCS STOP

LCL START

STARTER

M

STATUS- DI LATCHED

MX MX

START- DO MOMENTARY STOP- DO MOMENTARY

STATUS DCS START

B.

H

EMER STOP LCL

EMER STOP SIS

LCL STOP

DCS STOP

LCL START STARTER

M

STATUS- DI LATCHED

MX MX

START- DO LATCHED STOP- DO MOMENTARY

STATUS DCS START

C.

H

EMER STOP LCL

EMER STOP SIS

LCL STOP

LCL START

DCS STOP

STARTER

N

M

STATUS-LATCHED START/STOP LATCHED

MX

MX

STATUS DCS START

D. STATUS-LATCHED START/STOP LATCHED

60

H

EMER STOP LCL

EMER STOP SIS

HOA LCL OFF

STARTER

RUN

M

AUTO START STOP

STATUS

N

N

N

Afternoon Session 519.

A new pump was installed with the motor control, shown in the figure below, with a low flow shutdown. the wiring and pump rotation was confirmed during checkout. When operation went to place the pump in service, the pump will not start. What is the most likely cause?

H

EMER STOP LCL

EMER STOP SIS

LCL STOP

DCS STOP

LCL START

MX

LOW FLOW SHUTDOWN

STARTER N

M MX

DCS START STATUS

520.

(A)

The low flow switch needs a normally closed start-up bypass with a time delay on relay.

(B)

The flow switch needs a normally closed start-up bypass with a time delay off relay.

(C)

The low flow switch needs a normally open start-up bypass with a time delay off relay.

(D)

The low flow switch needs a normally open start-up bypass with a time delay on relay.

Double-acting control valve actuators usually: (A)

Fail in closed position

(B)

Fail in open position

(C)

Fail in last position

(D)

Are not fail safe

61

521.

Which of the following diagrams shows the best scheme for double-acting, fail-lastposition actuation of the process valve?

KEY:

I.A.

I.A.

INSTRUMENT AIR SOLENOID VALVE 3-WAY SOLENOID VALVE (arrow shows fail position)

C

C

O

PISTON ACTUATOR

O

PISTON ACTUATOR (with spring return)

(B) I.A.

I.A.

I.A.

I.A. FC

O

C

O

C

VENT

FC O

FC

(A)

62

(C)

VENT FC

(D)

Afternoon Session 522.

According to ISA-5.1-1984(R1992), which of the following is the symbol for a discrete instrument, not accessible to an operator, in an auxiliary location?

523.

Which of the following Boolean statements (using the notation “+” means “OR” and “ • ” means “AND”) describes the operation of the logic circuit shown in the following diagram? (A)

M = A + (B • C • D)

(B)

M = A + B + (C • D)

(C)

M = A • (B + (C • D))

(D)

M = A + (B • (C + D)) A M C

B

D

63

524.

A control system is described by the block diagram shown below.

Data List: 1.

s+4 Gs(s) = system transfer function = ----------------------------2 s + 6s + 13

2.

K(s + 3) Gc(s) = controller transfer function = -------------------s(s + 1)

For which values of K is the system stable?

64

(A)

All K > 0

(B)

All K < 0

(C)

All K > 19

(D)

All K < 13/7

Afternoon Session 525.

An alternative to open-loop process testing for determining controller parameters is closed-loop testing: the controller is placed in AUTOMATIC, the integral and derivative action are set to zero, and the controller gain is increased gradually until a sustained oscillation is produced. Which of the following statements about this procedure are correct? I

The two data items obtained from a closed-loop test and used in tuning parameter calculation are the period and amplitude of oscillation.

II The tuning parameters obtained from a closed-loop test are likely to be more accurate than those determined from an open-loop test. III It is necessary to observe the process for many cycles (say, 10 or more) to be sure that the oscillation is neither decaying nor increasing. IV The engineer conducting a closed-loop test has no control over the amplitude of the oscillation. (A)

I and III

(B)

I, II and IV

(C)

II and III

(D)

II and IV

65

526.

527.

528.

66

Compared to a control loop with no dead time (pure time delay), a control loop with an appreciable dead time tends to require: (A)

Less proportional gain and less integral action

(B)

More proportional gain and less integral action

(C)

More proportional gain and more integral action

(D)

Less proportional gain and more integral action

A distributed control system (DCS) is defined as follows: (A)

Controllers distributed throughout the facility mounted on valves or grouped in small panels

(B)

A control system that uses controllers built into valve positioners or fieldmounted transmitters and connected together by a fieldbus

(C)

Keyboards, monitors, input/output modules, and control computers with algorithms that have been assembled into a control system

(D)

Input/output modules and control computers that are purchased from distributed vendors and which may be mounted remotely from the operator’s control console

Which of the following tuning criteria would be most appropriate for designing a controller to regulate the temperature in the room where you are now sitting? (A)

Minimize the response time for setpoint changes

(B)

Minimize the overshoot for setpoint changes

(C)

Follow varying setpoints with a minimum error

(D)

Maintain the controlled variable at a constant value

Afternoon Session 529.

A Programmable Logic Controller (PLC) is used to start a motor using the circuit shown below. STOP

PERMISSIVE

START OUT 1

IN 1

IN 2

IN 3 M

M

IN 4

MOTOR STARTER

Which of the following logic statements will cause the motor to start running and continue running after the start contact closes and then reopens? (A)

OUT1 = IN1 AND IN2 AND IN3 AND IN4

(B)

OUT1 = NOT IN1 AND IN2 AND (IN3 OR IN4)

(C)

OUT1 = IN1 AND IN2 AND IN3 OR IN4

(D)

OUT1 = NOT IN1 AND (IN2 OR IN3) AND NOT IN4

67

530.

68

What effect does timer “A” have on the pump control?

(A)

It starts the pump 10 minutes after the pH reaches 7.0.

(B)

It stops the pump after it has run for 10 minutes.

(C)

It automatically starts the pump every 10 minutes

(D)

It delays the pump start for 10 minutes.

Afternoon Session 531.

532.

533.

Which ISA standard gives requirements for the specification, design, installation, operation and maintenance of safety instrumented systems? (A)

5.1

(B)

50

(C)

84

(D)

88

What is the objective of factory acceptance testing of a safety instrumented system? (A)

To test that the hardware and software satisfy the requirements defined in the safety requirements specification.

(B)

To test and document that the facility fabricating the system is qualified to perform the required work.

(C)

To test that field devices are operational before placing them in service.

(D)

To create test procedures that will be used during the life of the system to verify functionality.

The fundamental goal of any Safety Integrity Level selection study is to ensure that (A)

All risks are designed out of the process.

(B)

Equipment is operated at peak efficiency.

(C)

The residual risk is at or below the tolerable risk.

(D)

The tolerable risk is at or below the residual risk.

69

534.

A control system employs three sensors, each having a failure probability of 0.02 in six months of operation. The system can function properly when any two or more of the sensors are working, but it must shut down if two or three of the sensors fail. The probability that the system can operate for six months without a shutdown is most nearly equal to:

535.

536.

537.

70

(A)

0.9412

(B)

0.9600

(C)

0.9800

(D)

0.9988

According to ANSI/ISA-84.01-1996, Application of Safety Instrumented Systems for the Process Industries, which of the following statements is FALSE: (A)

The logic solver shall be separated from the Basic Process Control Systems except where some applications have combined control and safety functions in one logic solver.

(B)

The sensors for Safety Instrumented Systems shall be separated from the sensors for the Basic Process Control System.

(C)

The final elements for Safety Instrumented Systems shall be separated from the final elements for the Basic Process Control System.

(D)

Changes for the Safety Instrumented System shall not be allowed from the SIS operator interface.

What is the primary reason for visually inspecting safety systems? (A)

To satisfy company and union staffing and workload requirements.

(B)

To validate the Probability of Failure on Demand (PFD) calculations.

(C)

To ensure there are no unauthorized modifications or observable deterioration.

(D)

To satisfy equipment manufacturer and regulatory requirements.

Management Of Change is not required in which case? (A)

Low risk applications

(B)

Replacements in kind

(C)

Changes to software

(D)

Changes in personnel

Afternoon Session 538.

539.

The OSHA Process Safety Management Directive, 29CFR, Part 1910, addresses all of the following EXCEPT: (A)

Transportation of hazardous chemicals

(B)

Process operator training

(C)

Plant contractor safety

(D)

Process design considerations

Your assignment is to implement a burner management system using a solid-state microprocessor-based programmable logic controller (PLC). You will analyze boiler operation, develop system logic, and select control equipment. The system design shall upgrade the burner management functions on a 50,000,000 btu/ hr, two-burner, gas-fired boiler to current NFPA standards. Igniters will be interrupted (turned off) when the timed trial for ignition of the main burner has expired. PLC inputs and outputs will de-energize to shut off (trip) fuel to the boiler. The burner system manual emergency shutdown shall be accomplished by:

540.

(A)

A normally-open contact to a PLC input.

(B)

A normally-closed contact to a PLC input.

(C)

A normally-open contact to a PLC input and a normally-closed contact to another PLC input.

(D)

A hard-wired normally-closed contact to de-energize a fuel trip relay.

Loop drawings for a petrochemical process plant should be signed by: (A)

The manager of the Instrument/Control Department

(B)

The person who created their technical content

(C)

A licensed control systems engineer

(D)

All of the above

71

APPENDIX C ANSWERS TO SAMPLE QUESTIONS This appendix contains solutions and/or answers to the questions contained in Appendix B. A one-page summary list of the answers is included to facilitate scoring for those who treat the questions in Appendix B as a sample exam. Comments about the questions and answers will be appreciated. They should be sent to the Director of Credentialing Services, ISA, P.O. Box 12277, Research Triangle Park, NC 27709 for forwarding to the CSE examination committee.

73

74

CORRECT ANSWER

QUESTION

CORRECT ANSWER

QUESTION

CORRECT ANSWER

QUESTION

CORRECT ANSWER

QUESTION

ANSWERS

101

D

121

C

501

C

521

D

102

C

122

B

502

D

522

A

103

C

123

A

503

D

523

D

104

C

124

B

504

B

524

A

105

D

125

C

505

A

525

D

106

A

126

B

506

D

526

A

107

C

127

B

507

D

527

C

108

C

128

D

508

A

528

D

109

C

129

C

509

A

529

B

110

D

130

B

510

D

530

B

111

A

131

D

511

C

531

C

112

B

132

A

512

C

532

A

113

D

133

B

513

D

533

C

114

A

134

D

514

B

534

D

115

D

135

D

515

D

535

C

116

C

136

B

516

C

536

C

117

A

137

D

517

B

537

B

118

A

138

B

518

A

538

A

119

A

139

D

519

C

539

D

120

C

140

D

520

D

540

B

Answers - Morning Session 101.

For this control application, the best choice is an orifice plate. The correct answer is (D).

102.

The “90% point” is a boiling characteristic of a hydrocarbon liquid. Thus, the only suitable analyzer is a boiling point analyzer. The other instruments measure different characteristics of materials. The correct answer is (C).

103.

Span = S.G. × d density of Process at Normal Temp = 280°F S.G. = ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------water density at Standard Temp = 60°F 3

57.941#/ft S.G. = ----------------------------- = 0.929 3 62.364 #/ft Span = 0.929 × 60 in. = 55.7 in. H 2 O The correct answer is (C).

104.

The correct answer is (C).

105.

The correct answer is (D).

106.

The correct answer is (A).

107.

The correct answer is (C).

108.

The correct answer is (C).

109.

The correct answer is (C). Zener diode barriers are inexpensive and easy to use. The other statements are true.

75

110.

The correct answer is (D).

CONTROL ELEMENT

DCS

I/I

250 ohm

INDIC.

111.

The correct answer is (A). Wireless systems with a large number of links or channels in a limited radio frequency spectrum can interfere with each other; there is no limit on the possible number of wired or cable channels. (B) is True. Wireless systems do not require conduit or cable trays to be routed through the plant in order to connect a multitude of inputs to controllers and central processors; many functions are built into the wireless system components. (C) is True. Sensors and controllers in a wireless system still need power to perform their functions. (D) is True. By means of channel hopping, encryption, resending data packets, etc., wireless systems can be given a high degree of immunity to electrical noise.

112.

The correct answer is (B) since the fiber can be broken by a small-radius bend.

113.

The correct answer is (D).

114.

The correct answer is (A).

115.

The correct answer is (D).

76

Answers - Morning Session 116.

The correct answer is (C); putting valve stems in a vertical position is a common practice but is not an absolute requirement for all situations. (See J.W. Hutchison, ISA Handbook of Control Valves, 2nd Ed., 1976, p. 353.)

117.

The correct answer is (A); vent lines should be provided so that personnel or equipment will not be inadvertently sprayed, even with harmless material, when a vent valve is opened. (See J. W. Hutchison, pp. 336-337.)

118.

(A) is the correct answer. Ball valves usually have larger Cv for the same size body than globe valves. (B) – Piping might need to be revised, but ball valves are usually shorter than the same size globe valve. (C) – Ball valves often use piston actuators, but can use diaphragm-type actuators as well. (D) – Ball valves are often used for on/off control, but are also used for modulating control.

119.

The correct answer is (A). AMSE Section VIII – Division 1, UG-134, Pressure Setting of Pressure Relief Devices, (d) says: The pressure at which any device is set to operate shall include the effects of static head and constant back pressure.

120.

The correct answer is (C). The maximum vessel pressure with one valve in service is 110 percent of MAWP (10 percent accumulation) or 1.1 * 200 = 220 psig.

121.

The correct answer is (C).

122.

The correct answer is (B). A single maintained contact is to be placed between the Emergency STOP SIS and the local STOP and after the local START.

123.

The correct answer is (A). The typical fire detection/protection panel outputs are normally closed and supervised. See NFPA-74. Therefore, motor control A is the only correct answer.

124.

The correct answer is (B). (A) is a pressure-reducing regulator, self-contained; (C) is a back-pressure regulator, self-contained, and (D) is a back-pressure regulator with an external tap.

77

125.

The correct answer is (C).

126.

The correct answer is (B), two degrees of freedom. Solution: Number of variables: 3

Number of equations: 1*

*Material balance: F3 = F1 + F2 Therefore, degrees of freedom = 3 - 1 = 2 Any two of the flows can be specified; the third flow must satisfy the material balance.

127.

0.5815 – 0.500 The overshoot is ------------------------------------ × 100 = 16.3% 0.500 From standard response curves, the damping ratio is approximately 0.5, one-half of critical damping. Alternately, the damping ratio (ξ) can be calculated from the equation 16.3 = 100e e

πξ ⁄ 1 – ξ

2

– πξ ⁄ 1 – ξ

2

100 = ---------- = 6.135 16.3

2

πξ ⁄ 1 – ξ = ln 6.135 = 1.814 2 2

2

2

π ξ = 3.29 ( 1 – ξ ) ; ξ ( 9.87 + 3.29 ) = 3.29; 2

ξ = 0.25 ; ξ = 0.5 The correct answer is (B).

128.

The correct answer is (D). τd = 0.3 min (60sec/min) = 20 sec Kp = 28/20 = 1.4 For Integral-Only Control: I = 1.6 Kpτd = 45 For τ0 = 6.4 τd = 129

129.

78

The correct answer is (C); statements II and III are true. Statement I is false because flows can be in any direction; recycle flows will be right-to-left if the main flows are left-toright, and some flows are vertical, up or down. Statement IV is a common but not universal convention; the convention can vary from company to company or industry to industry.

Answers - Morning Session 130.

The alarm point should be set above the noise or background level, perhaps caused by small, intermittent releases of H2S, and well below the prescribed maximum permissible level. Of the choices given, the best is 5-9.9 ppm. The correct answer is (B).

131.

The correct answer is (D) since derivative action in a relatively noise-free system allows the controller to anticipate the effects of a load disturbance and take pre-emptive action. Action I might also work, but there is nothing to indicate that action III is required as well.

132.

The correct answer is (A) since all of the other tuning objective would required overshoot which is stated to be undesirable. This question deals with important tuning criteria other than the classical ¼-wave decay criteria favored by Ziegler and Nichols.

133.

The correct answer is (B). Based on clause 3.2.74 of ISA 84.

134.

The correct answer is (D). Based on clauses 3.2.74, 9.2.2, 10.3.1 (and more) of ISA 84.

135.

The correct answer is (D). Based on clause 3.2.76 of ISA 84.

136.

The correct answer is (B). Based on clauses 16.3.1.3 and 11.9.2 of ISA 84.

137.

The correct answer is (D). Based on clause 17.1.1 of ISA 84.

138.

The correct answer is (B), which is a false statement. Symbols from different standards can be used in the same diagram IF they are clearly defined.

139.

Because water hoses may be used for house cleaning purposes, watertight (NEMA 4) enclosures are desirable. General-purpose (1), drip tight (2), weatherproof (3), and dust tight (5) enclosures are not indicated. The correct answer is (D).

140.

Class II, Group F is for areas where coal dust is present. The correct answer is (D).

79

Answers - Afternoon Session 501.

Since the differential pressure measurement provides for pressure fluctuation and water is an incompressible fluid, the level measurement remains unchanged. The correct answer is (C).

502.

If a single differential pressure transmitter was used, mounted at one of the platforms, the connecting lines would be significantly different in length. Extraneous effects, e.g., temperature or gravity head, could adversely affect the accuracy. Therefore, two pressure transmitters should be used. The correct answer is (D).

503.

The correct answer is (D). 2 ΔP 2  F 2 ---------- =  ------ ΔP 1  F 1

176 2 or ΔP 2 = ( 27 )  --------- = 58.1 in. of H 2 O  120

504.

For a stream containing solids, the best choice is a flow sensor that offers a minimum obstruction to the flowing stream, i.e., a magnetic flowmeter. The correct answer is (B).

505.

62.4 The pressure reading is ( 14 – 1 )  ---------- = 5.6 psi  144  The correct answer is (A).

81

506.

The correct answer is (D). All of the listed factors influence the accuracy of measurements made with orifice-type elements.

507.

The correct answer is (D), self-check UV detector.

508.

Hydrogen sulfide (MW = 44) is heavier than air (MW ≅ 29), therefore its concentration is highest close to the ground. For early detection, the field sensor (analyzer inlet) should be as close to the ground as possible, i.e., one foot. The correct answer is (A).

509.

Fiber optic data transmissions is immune to electromagnetic disturbances. The other media listed are electrical and, therefore, subject in varying degrees to electromagnetic disturbances. The correct answer is (A).

510.

The correct answer is (D). That is the purpose of intrinsically-safe equipment. Caution is needed at the boundary between hazardous and non-hazardous areas, however, to prevent leakage of, for example, explosive gases from the hazardous area to the non-hazardous area.

511.

Answer (C) is false and is, therefore, the correct answer. Some LAN vendors insist on STP.

512.

According to IEEE 802.3, the designation “10BASE5” refers to millions of bits per second and distances in hundreds of meters. The correct answer is (C).

82

Answers - Afternoon Session 513.

The correct answer is (D).

514.

The correct answer is (B).

515.

For the new service conditions, using the maximum CV = 12, the maximum flow can be calculated using the equation (Eq. 1, ANSI/ISA-75.01.01-1985): G q C V = ------------- ------fN 1 F p Δp with

q

=

flow rate, gpm

FP =

piping geometry factor =

1 (assumed)

Gf =

fluid specific gravity

0.81

Δp =

pressure difference, psi =

10

N1 =

units factor

1 for gpm and psi

= =

Rearranging to solve for q, the equation is:

Δp q = C V ------Gf 10 = 12 ---------0.81 = 42.2 gpm The correct answer is (D).

516.

 X 2 F 2 = F 1  -------  X 1 The mass flow is directly proportional to open area of valve. The correct answer is (C).

83

517.

The correct answer is (B). In some cases, the best action is to hold the previous position, at least in the short term.

518.

The correct answer is (A). Upon loss of power, the MX contact opens and the motor will remain off until either the local or DCS start is activated and the motor starter pulls in sealing in the circuit.

519.

The correct answer is (C).

On Delay

0.5 sec to activate

ON

POWER OFF CLOSED

NO OPEN CLOSED

NC OPEN

TIMER

Off Delay ON

POWER OFF CLOSED

NO OPEN CLOSED

NC OPEN

TIMER

Flow Switch Bypass active

POWER ON

84

Answers - Afternoon Session The start-up bypass could be either an On Delay Relay with a Normally Open contact or an Off Delay Relay with a Normally Closed contact. The Off Delay Relay with Normally Closed contact is not fail safe as the normally closed contact will bypass the Low Flow shutdown. Where the On Delay Relay requires a typically 0.5 sec power pulse to start the timer which in turn energizes the relay and the contacts change state, i.e., the normally open contact close. Therefore, the On Delay Relay is fail safe design and the only solution.

520.

The correct answer is (D). A double-acting actuator must be given power to open and again to shut. “Fail safe” means that a device, if not already so, will, on its own, go to a safe mode upon loss of signal/control power.

521.

The correct answer is (D). Blocks in the pressure on solenoid failure. If momentarily actuated, is immune to loss of instrument air as well. Distracters: (A) – Fails closed. (B) – Fails closed if solenoid fails. Unpredictable on loss of air. Also, will not actuate in both directions. (C) – Almost works, but it may move when failed if the process exerts force on the valve.

522.

The correct answer is (A).

523.

The correct answer is (D). This Boolean statement means that M is activated when A or (B and (C or D)) are closed. This is correct.

85

524.

To check the stability of a system having the characteristic function s4+ 7s3 + (19 + K) s2 + (13 + 7K) s + 12K, write the Routh array as follows: s4

1

19 + K

s3

7

13 + 7K

s2

a

b

s1

c

b = 12K

0

d

a ( 13 + 7K ) – 7b c = ---------------------------------------a

s

12K 7 ( 19 + K ) – ( 13 + 7K ) a = ------------------------------------------------------7 133 + 7K – 13 – 7K = -----------------------------------------------7 120 = --------7

7 = 13 + 7K – 7 ( 12K )  ---------  120 = 13 + 7K – 4.9K = 13 + 2.1K d = b = 12K The first column will be positive when c > 0 and d > 0. The first condition requires K > – 6.2; the second requires K > 0. The correct answer is (A).

525. I

False - The parameters are the period of the oscillation and the gain needed to produce the oscillation.

II True III False-3 or 4 cycles are sufficient. IV True The correct answer is (D).

86

Answers - Afternoon Session 526.

The correct answer is (A). Pure time delay requires a reduction in both proportional gain and integral action. [See D. R. Coughanowr and L.B. Koppel, Process Systems Analysis and Control, McGrawHill, 1965, pp. 312–314, where the Cohen-Coon tuning formulas are discussed. The equations show Kc varying inversely with dead time, which means that the integral action decreases with dead time.]

527.

The correct answer is (C).

528.

The correct answer is (D) since a room’s temperature is to be maintained in spite of load disturbances. This question deals with the difference between tuning for setpoint tracking or disturbance rejection.

529.

The correct answer is (B).

530.

The correct answer is (B). Note that the “NOT” element at the input to the following “AND” element.

531.

The correct answer is (C). Based on clause 1 of ISA-84.

532.

The correct answer is (A). Based on clause 13.1.1 of ISA-84.

533.

The correct answer is (C). Based on clauses 3.4 and 3.5 of Part 3 of ANSI/ISA-84.00.01 (IEC 61511-3 Mod).

534.

The correct answer is (D), 0.9988. Solution: Prob. of no failures = (0.98)3 = 0.941192 Prob. of one failure = 3 (0.02)(0.98)2 = 0.057624 Prob. of system operating = 0.998816 As a check:

Prob. of two failures = 3 (0.02)2(0.98) = 0.001176 = 0.000008 Prob. of three failures = (0.02)3 Prob. of system being shutdown = 0.001184 Total of all outcomes

= 1.000000

87

535.

The correct answer is (C). ANSI/ISA-84.01-1996, Section 7.4.3.1 only mandates separate valves for SIL 3 (Safety Integrity Level 3). The other statements are true.

536.

The correct answer is (C). Based on clause 16.3.2 of ISA-84.

537.

The correct answer is (B). Based on OSHA PSM regulation (29 CFR 1910.119), not specifically referenced in ISA-84.

538.

The correct answer is (A). Transportation of hazardous chemicals is covered by 49CFR, Parts 100-185, and is a concern of the Department of Transportation (DOT), not OSHA. Distracters: (B), (C) and (D) are covered by 29CFR, Part 1910, and are concerns of OSHA.

539.

The correct answer is (D). This is required by NFPA Standard 85C and precludes the selection of (A), (B) or (C). Also, most PLC manufacturers recommend an external master relay to remove all power from field devices in an emergency.

540.

The correct answer is (B); the over-riding principle in this area is that the person responsible for engineering designs should sign the drawings. Signatures by other people won’t hurt, but they are not required.

88

APPENDIX D SAMPLE EXAMINATION MATERIALS

89

SERIAL NAME:_________________________________ Last

First

Middle Initial

PRINCIPLES AND PRACTICE OF ENGINEERING EXAMINATION DISCIPLINE Control Systems

This test booklet is the property of the National Council of Examiners for Engineering and Surveying and its contents are copyrighted under the laws of the United States. Copying, reproduction, or any action taken to reveal the contents of this examination in whole or in part is unlawful. Removal of this booklet from the examination room by unauthorized persons is prohibited. At the conclusion of the examination, you are responsible for returning the numbered test booklet which was assigned to you. Multiple-choice answers must be placed on the separate answer sheet.

SAMPLE

© 1992, National Council of Examiners for Engineering and Surveying, Clemson, South Carolina 29633

91

NATIONAL COUNCIL OF EXAMINERS FOR ENGINEERING AND SURVEYING

CONTROL SYSTEMS ENGINEERING THIS IS AN OPEN BOOK EXAMINATION NOTE: LOCAL LICENSURE BOARD RULES TAKE PRECEDENCE OVER THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS Textbooks, handbooks, bound reference materials and battery-operated, silent, non-printing calculators may be used in the examination room. Writing tablets, unbound tables or notes, and devices that may compromise the security of the examination are NOT PERMITTED in the examination room. The exchange of reference materials during the examination is not allowed. This is an examination of your capabilities; the work is to be representative of your knowledge. Copying or cheating of any kind is NOT tolerated and will result in an invalidation of your examination score. Respond to all 40 questions during this four-hour examination. Select the best answer from a list of four choices. Each multiple-choice question has equal weight and points are not subtracted for incorrect responses. Be sure to correctly enter all of your answers on the separate answer sheet enclosed within this test booklet. THIS IS THE ONLY RECORD OF THE PROBLEMS YOU HAVE WORKED. Once you select your answer, fill in the corresponding space on the answer sheet using a Number 2 pencil. BE SURE THAT EACH MARK IS DARK AND COMPLETELY FILLS THE ANSWER SPACE. Only one answer is permitted for each question; no credit is given for multiple answers. If you change an answer, be sure to completely erase the previous mark. Incomplete erasures may be read as intended answers. Blank space in the test booklet may be used for scratch work. NO CREDIT WILL BE GIVEN FOR ANY WORK WRITTEN IN THE TEST BOOKLET. Make certain that you have followed the above instructions before turning in all test materials to the proctor. YOU ARE PROHIBITED FROM COPYING THE PROBLEMS FOR FUTURE REFERENCE; VIOLATORS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW.

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