Chapter 23 Reading E: Mixed Reading passages and questions test your ability to comprehend and analyze academic inform
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Chapter 23
Reading E: Mixed
Reading passages and questions test your ability to comprehend and analyze academic information. Most questions are multiple-choice with four options (select one from A, B, C, or D). Some questions may ask you to select more than one option or to fill in a table. Reading passages test your understanding of main ideas and details, as well as the organization of the passage or of specific parts of the passage. They also test your understanding of the relationship between different ideas and your ability to make inferences (messages implied by the passage). How should you use this chapter? Here are some recommendations, according to the level you’ve reached in TOEFL Reading: 1. Fundamentals. When you feel comfortable with the individual topics, move on to “mixed” practice, as you’ll find in this chapter. Because you already practiced by topic in the earlier chapters, time yourself in this chapter and do all of the questions for a passage at once, without stopping. 2. Fixes. Test yourself with timed sets (a passage and all of its associated questions). Review the answers carefully to learn how to improve. 3. Tweaks. Confirm your mastery by doing a passage and question set under timed conditions. Concentrate on your weaker topic areas. Aim to improve the speed and ease of your process. Good luck on Reading!
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23.1 The Body and the Mind People around the world accept the idea that what a person experiences emotionally can impact that person physically. But why is it that this is such a commonly held belief? In the Western world, this idea gained traction when it was adopted by Dr. Sigmund Freud, a pioneer in the field of psychology in the early twentieth century. As one of the earliest exponents of the theory that emotional experiences can generate physical responses, Freud argued that some patients suffering from what appeared to be a severe physical illness could be treated for a psychological problem as a way to relieve their physical symptoms. To reach his conclusion, Freud drew on the work of nineteenth-century French neurologist Jean-Martin Charcot. Charcot was researching a condition known at that time as “hysteria.” Drawn from the Greek word “hystera,” meaning “uterus,” hysteria was thought for centuries to be a medical condition experienced by women because of malfunctions of that organ. One theory that can be traced all the way back to the Greek physician Hippocrates and that persisted in European medicine for centuries was the “wandering womb” theory. This theory supposed that the condition of hysteria was due to the inappropriate movement of the uterus around the woman’s body. Charcot, however, believed that the symptoms of hysteria were not the result of malfunctions of the uterus, but instead were caused by malfunctions of the nervous system, because the wide range of symptoms that characterize hysteria can impact all areas of the body. Nevertheless, as he researched his hypothesis, Charcot changed his opinion. He began treating patients using hypnosis1. In their state of hypnosis, Charcot was able to make suggestions that changed a patient’s physical state. This led him to conclude that their condition was not physical but psychological.
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Freud and his friend and collaborator Dr. Josef Breuer accepted this conclusion and began to treat their own hysterical patients using hypnosis, observing that in a hypnotized state, some of their patients could reveal the underlying psychological source of their physical symptoms. One such patient was “Anna O.” A patient of Breuer’s, Anna was invited to talk about her symptoms while under hypnosis. During the course of those conversations, the severity of a symptom would be reduced as she was able to retrieve memories of traumatic events associated with the symptom’s onset. She would go on to dub this process the “talking cure.” As Freud continued to develop the talking cure, he moved away from hypnosis and to a procedure he termed “free association,” through which patients were encouraged to speak in a totally uncensored and uninhibited way about whatever ideas or memories occurred to them in response to a given stimulus. This process proved more laborious than working under hypnosis, leading Freud to surmise that there must be a force preventing the easy recall of the traumatic memories associated with his patients’ symptoms. From this idea, his theory of repression was born. Repression, he believed, was the force that made traumatic memories so difficult for his patients to recall. The memories were there—that much he knew from his work with patients—but they were so difficult to access that he did not feel as if they could be part of the patient’s conscious mind. This feeling led him to the conclusion that there must be another part of the human mind in which those memories were amassed that is not fully conscious. This subconscious region of the mind stores information that is repressed by the conscious mind. According to Freud, repression happens when a wish, desire, or predilection does not align with the generally accepted moral system of the society in which an individual lives. Unable to make sense of the fact that the person has a desire for what he or she morally should not be craving, the mind takes the desire
hypnosis1: a state of consciousness in which the subject is unaware of his or her surroundings, is focused on a single issue, and is highly suggestible
2
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and buries it deep down in the subconscious region of the mind. This repression of deviant desires is at the heart of all neuroses, according to Freud’s theory. The widespread acceptance of this once revolutionary theory underpins the now commonplace belief that there is a link between emotional well-being and physical health. Now answer the questions.
P1
Paragraph 1
S1
People around the world accept the idea that what a person experiences emotionally can impact that person physically.
2
But why is it that this is such a commonly held belief?
3
In the Western world, this idea gained traction when it was adopted by Freud, a pioneer in the field of psychology in the early twentieth century.
4
As one of the earliest exponents of the theory that emotional experiences can generate physical responses, Freud argued that some patients suffering from what appeared to be a severe physical illness could be treated for a psychological problem as a way to relieve their physical symptoms.
1. The word “exponents” in the passage is closest in meaning to A
advocates
B
associates
C
adversaries
D
acolytes
P2
23
Paragraph 2
S1
To reach his conclusion, Freud drew on the work of nineteenth-century French neurologist Jean-Martin Charcot.
2
Charcot was researching a condition known at that time as “hysteria.”
3
Drawn from the Greek word “hystera,” meaning “uterus,” hysteria was thought for centuries to be a medical condition experienced by women because of malfunctions of that organ.
4
One theory that can be traced all the way back to the Greek physician Hippocrates and that persisted in European medicine for centuries was the “wandering womb” theory.
5
This theory supposed that the condition of hysteria was due to the inappropriate movement of the uterus around the woman’s body.
6
Charcot, however, believed that the symptoms of hysteria were not the result of malfunctions of the uterus, but instead were caused by malfunctions of the nervous system, because the wide range of symptoms that characterize hysteria can impact all areas of the body.
3
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Reading E: Mixed
2. According to paragraph 2, what evidence supports Charcot’s theory that hysteria is a disease of the nervous system, rather than the uterus? A
When it is malfunctioning, the human uterus can shift in position within the body.
B
Symptoms of hysteria are experienced by men as well as women.
C
Symptoms of hysteria affect all regions of the body.
D
Other diseases of the uterus did not cause psychological symptoms.
3. The word “inappropriate” in the passage is closest in meaning to A
sudden
B
improper
C
involuntary
D
rhythmic
P3
23
Paragraph 3
S1
Nevertheless, as he researched his hypothesis, Charcot changed his opinion.
2
He began treating patients using hypnosis.
3
In their state of hypnosis, Charcot was able to make suggestions that changed a patient’s physical state.
4
This led him to conclude that their condition was not physical but psychological.
4. What finding led to Charcot’s change in opinion regarding the root causes of his patients’ symptoms? A
Certain patients were more suggestible under hypnosis than others.
B
Not all patients were able to be hypnotized.
C
Suggestions made during hypnosis could alter the physical state of patients.
D
Physical manipulation of patients during hypnosis could lessen psychological symptoms.
P4
Paragraph 4
S1
Freud and his friend and collaborator Breuer accepted this conclusion and began to treat their own hysterical patients using hypnosis, observing that in a hypnotized state, some of their patients could reveal the underlying psychological source of their physical symptoms.
2
One such patient was “Anna O.”
3
A patient of Breuer’s, Anna was invited to talk about her symptoms while under hypnosis.
4
During the course of those conversations, the severity of a symptom would be reduced as she was able to retrieve memories of traumatic events associated with the symptom’s onset.
5
She would go on to dub this process the “talking cure.”
4
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5. The word “their” in the passage refers to A
Freud and Breuer
B
previous treatments
C
physical symptoms
D
some patients
6. According to paragraph 4, Anna O.’s symptoms became less severe as she A
observed and treated patients in a hypnotized state
B
discussed traumatic memories that she retrieved under hypnosis
C
concealed the underlying psychological source of her physical symptoms
D
gave the nickname of the “talking cure” to the process
7. The passage mentions Anna O. in order to A
illustrate how a patient can reveal underlying psychological causes of symptoms under hypnosis
B
draw a distinction between hysterical patients and patients with other psychological disorders
C
express a similarity between Breuer’s patients and Freud’s
D
compare hysterical patients and patients seeking treatment for purely physical ailments
P5
23
Paragraph 5
S1
As Freud continued to develop the talking cure, he moved away from hypnosis and to a procedure he termed “free association,” through which patients were encouraged to speak in a totally uncensored and uninhibited way about whatever ideas or memories occurred to them in response to a given stimulus.
2
This process proved more laborious than working under hypnosis, leading Freud to surmise that there must be a force preventing the easy recall of the traumatic memories associated with his patients’ symptoms.
3
From this idea, his theory of repression was born.
4
Repression, he believed, was the force that made traumatic memories so difficult for his patients to recall.
5
The memories were there—that much he knew from his work with patients—but they were so difficult to access that he did not feel as if they could be part of the patient’s conscious mind.
6
This feeling led him to the conclusion that there must be another part of the human mind in which those memories were amassed that is not fully conscious.
7
This subconscious region of the mind stores information that is repressed by the conscious mind.
5
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Reading E: Mixed
8. According to paragraph 5, all of the following contributed to Freud’s conclusion that there is a subconscious region of the human mind EXCEPT: A
His patients had traumatic memories.
B
His patients’ traumatic memories were not easy to access via free association.
C
His hypnotized patients were highly suggestible.
D
He believed that humans repress traumatic memories.
9. The word “amassed” in the passage is closest in meaning to
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A
lost
B
revived
C
treasured
D
housed
P6
Paragraph 6
S1
According to Freud, repression happens when a wish, desire, or predilection does not align with the generally accepted moral system of the society in which an individual lives.
2
Unable to make sense of the fact that the person has a desire for what he or she morally should not be craving, the mind takes the desire and buries it deep down in the subconscious region of the mind.
3
This repression of deviant desires is at the heart of all neuroses, according to Freud’s theory.
4
The widespread acceptance of this once revolutionary theory underpins the now commonplace belief that there is a link between emotional well-being and physical health.
10. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in paragraph 6? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information. A
Because a person desires to make moral choices, immoral choices must be made in the subconscious.
B
The mind pushes a desire into the subconscious if that desire cannot be reconciled with morality.
C
A person who is normally moral may subconsciously desire immoral things.
D
People who are moral and know that they are moral do not consciously desire only moral things.
6
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P4
Chapter 23
Paragraph 4
S1
Freud and his friend and collaborator Breuer accepted this conclusion and began to treat their own hysterical patients using hypnosis, observing that in a hypnotized state, some of their patients could reveal the underlying psychological source of their physical symptoms.
2
A One such patient was “Anna O.”
3
B A patient of Breuer’s, Anna was invited to talk about her symptoms while under hypnosis.
4
C During the course of those conversations, the severity of a symptom would be reduced as she was able to retrieve memories of traumatic events associated with the symptom’s onset.
5
D She would go on to dub this process the “talking cure.”
Look at the part of the passage that is displayed above. The letters [A], [B], [C], and [D] indicate where the following sentence could be added. 11. Furthermore, the reduction of the symptom was not temporary, but persisted long after the conversations with Breuer, effectively relieving her of the symptom in full. A
Choice A
B
Choice B
C
Choice C
D
Choice D
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Reading E: Mixed
Select from the six phrases below TWO that correctly characterize the early version of the talking cure and THREE that correctly characterize the later version of the talking cure, as described in the passage. One of the phrases will NOT be used. This question is worth 2 points.
Early talking cure
Later talking cure
•
•
•
• •
12. A The patient is under hypnosis.
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B
The process is more laborious.
C
The patient is not under hypnosis.
D
The patient is prompted to talk about his or her symptoms.
E
The process can be performed successfully by non professionals.
F
The patient is encouraged to respond uninhibitedly to a stimulus.
23.2 The Spinning Jenny Two well-known icons of the Industrial Revolution are the steam engine, originally invented in Britain by Thomas Savery and Thomas Newcomen in 1712 (later perfected by James Watt), and the cotton gin, patented by Eli Whitney in 1794 in the United States. Both innovations were crucial in propelling the Industrial Revolution forward. The steam engine was the first independent source of power that was not reliant on wind or moving water, such as a river, and the cotton gin drastically sped up the laborious process of separating cotton fibers from cotton seeds as a raw material for making cloth. Both innovations led to dramatic improvements in the productivity of workers, enabling machines to replace the effort in important manufacturing tasks that had previously depended on human or animal power. However, a much lesser-known invention arrived in between these two, one that may have been just as crucial in paving the way for the rapid economic growth that followed over the next century: the spinning jenny. At the time, spinning wheels were used to turn cotton fibers into yarn and other threads for use in making cloth. The operator turned the wheel, which in turn spun components of the machine called the flyer and spindle. The flyer was responsible for “spinning” the fibers, that is, for twisting the raw fibers at an appropriate rate to produce thread. Placed horizontally, the spindle was responsible for collecting the finished thread, with the flyer next to it. According to a popular myth, in 1764, James Hargreaves (1720–1778) was in his workshop and observed that a spinning wheel had been knocked over by his daughter, Jenny, but was still spinning, along with the spindle, which now pointed vertically. It dawned on him that it would be possible to place multiple spindles vertically, each with its own flyer, and have the entire assembly powered by a single wheel operated by one person. In reality, Hargreaves had several daughters, none of whom was named Jenny. (It is believed that Hargreaves may have intended “jenny” as a nickname for “engine.”) However, with his insight about
8
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repositioning the spindle and adding more of them, the spinning jenny was born. His initial creation consisted of eight vertical spindles all connected to a single wheel via a metal frame. Thus, the original spinning jenny could produce thread at up to eight times the rate of a single-thread spinning wheel with the same amount of manpower. It is one of the earliest known examples of a mechanical advantage, or the advantage gained by the use of a device when transmitting force. Mechanical advantage is an extremely important concept that drove the explosive increase in economic output that occurred during the Industrial Revolution across practically every industry. The textile industry was one of the first to experience such a growth in productivity, and the spinning jenny was the invention responsible for it. In fact, many inventions in other industries that created mechanical advantage used the spinning jenny as a model or inspiration in their design. Not surprisingly, there was substantial opposition to Hargreaves’s invention. Of course, textile makers welcomed an invention that would make more thread available for them to use as a raw material in the production of cloth. At first, other hand weavers also welcomed the possibility of machine that would make their work more productive—there had been a shortage in the capacity for thread spinning for quite some time. However, once Hargreaves began selling his invention within the industry, spinning capacity proliferated, and the price of spun yarn fell drastically. Weavers who did not have access to Hargreaves’s device, or who could not afford it, were quickly priced out of the market. Many revolted, going so far as to repeatedly break into his property and destroy newly manufactured machines whenever he had assembled them for sale. Hargreaves was forced to flee to Nottingham, about 100 miles away, and construct his machines in secrecy. He also faced competition from imitation versions of his invention, so he applied for and received a patent for the spinning jenny in 1770. Unfortunately for Hargreaves, because he had sold a number of such machines prior to receiving patent protection, his legal recourse against imitations was limited.
23
Now answer the questions.
P1
Paragraph 1
S1
Two well-known icons of the Industrial Revolution are the steam engine, originally invented in Britain by Thomas Savery and Thomas Newcomen in 1712 (later perfected by James Watt), and the cotton gin, patented by Eli Whitney in 1794 in the United States.
2
Both innovations were crucial in propelling the Industrial Revolution forward.
3
The steam engine was the first independent source of power that was not reliant on wind or moving water, such as a river, and the cotton gin drastically sped up the laborious process of separating cotton fibers from cotton seeds as a raw material for making cloth.
4
Both innovations led to dramatic improvements in the productivity of workers, enabling machines to replace the effort in important manufacturing tasks that had previously depended on human or animal power.
5
However, a much lesser-known invention arrived in between these two, one that may have been just as crucial in paving the way for the rapid economic growth that followed over the next century: the spinning jenny.
9
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Reading E: Mixed
1. The word “laborious” in the passage is closest in meaning to A
sophisticated
B
impossible
C
arduous
D
repetitive
2. According to paragraph 1, which of the following was true of both the steam engine and the cotton gin? A
Both inventions increased worker productivity.
B
Both inventions were in fact created before the Industrial Revolution.
C
Both machines were invented in the United States.
D
Both inventions led to the development of the spinning jenny.
3. According to paragraph 1, which of the following was true of the human and animal power referred to in the paragraph?
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A
It was still used to provide small amounts of energy to the steam engine and the cotton gin.
B
Manufacturing depended on it more after the steam engine and the cotton gin were invented.
C
As a natural source, it was itself reliant on power from wind or moving water.
D
It started to be replaced by machines after the invention of the steam engine and the cotton gin.
P2
Paragraph 2
S1
At the time, spinning wheels were used to turn cotton fibers into yarn and other threads for use in making cloth.
2
The operator turned the wheel, which in turn spun components of the machine called the flyer and spindle.
3
The flyer was responsible for “spinning” the fibers, that is, for twisting the raw fibers at an appropriate rate to produce thread.
4
Placed horizontally, the spindle was responsible for collecting the finished thread, with the flyer next to it.
5
According to a popular myth, in 1764, James Hargreaves (1720–1778) was in his workshop and observed that a spinning wheel had been knocked over by his daughter, Jenny, but was still spinning, along with the spindle, which now pointed vertically.
6
It dawned on him that it would be possible to place multiple spindles vertically, each with its own flyer, and have the entire assembly powered by a single wheel operated by one person.
10
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4. The word “assembly” in the passage is closest in meaning to A
association
B
machine
C
component
D
supply
5. Why does the author use the phrase “According to a popular myth” in the paragraph? A
To explain why the story about how Hargreaves invented the spinning jenny is so popular
B
To introduce a tale about the invention of the spinning jenny that is interesting but not true
C
To make a transition from the circumstances of the spinning jenny’s invention to its method of operation
D
To echo back to a previously told story that outlines how the spinning jenny was actually invented
6. It can be inferred from paragraph 2 that an important difference between the spinning jenny and the spinning wheel was that A
the spinning jenny could produce any type of thread, while the spinning wheel could only be used to turn cotton into yarn
B
the spinning jenny made use of a different and less costly source of power than the spinning wheel did
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C
the spinning jenny required several operators, whereas the spinning wheel needed just one operator
D
the spinning jenny could fill many spindles at once, while the spinning wheel could fill only one at a time
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Reading E: Mixed
P3
23
Paragraph 3
S1
In reality, Hargreaves had several daughters, none of whom was named Jenny.
2
(It is believed that Hargreaves may have intended “jenny” as a nickname for “engine.”)
3
However, with his insight about repositioning the spindle and adding more of them, the spinning jenny was born.
4
His initial creation consisted of eight vertical spindles all connected to a single wheel via a metal frame.
5
Thus, the original spinning jenny could produce thread at up to eight times the rate of a singlethread spinning wheel with the same amount of manpower.
6
It is one of the earliest known examples of a mechanical advantage, or the advantage gained by the use of a device when transmitting force.
7
Mechanical advantage is an extremely important concept that drove the explosive increase in economic output that occurred during the Industrial Revolution across practically every industry.
8
The textile industry was one of the first to experience such a growth in productivity, and the spinning jenny was the invention responsible for it.
9
In fact, many inventions in other industries that created mechanical advantage used the spinning jenny as a model or inspiration in their design.
7. The word “repositioning” in the passage is closest in meaning to A
removing
B
implementing
C
rearranging
D
warehousing
8. Which of the following best describes the organization of paragraph 2? A
A correction of a previous story, followed by an explanation of an invention and its implications
B
A confirmation of a previous story, followed by detailed examples about that story
C
An opinion about a previous story, followed by a detailed explanation of an economic concept
D
A denial of a previous story, followed by a series of examples showing why that story must be incorrect
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P4
Chapter 23
Paragraph 4
S1
Not surprisingly, there was substantial opposition to Hargreaves’s invention.
2
Of course, textile makers welcomed an invention that would make more thread available for them to use as a raw material in the production of cloth.
3
At first, other hand weavers also welcomed the possibility of machine that would make their work more productive—there had been a shortage in the capacity for thread spinning for quite some time.
4
However, once Hargreaves began selling his invention within the industry, spinning capacity proliferated, and the price of spun yarn fell drastically.
5
Weavers who did not have access to Hargreaves’s device, or who could not afford it, were quickly priced out of the market.
6
Many revolted, going so far as to repeatedly break into his property and destroy newly manufactured machines whenever he had assembled them for sale.
7
Hargreaves was forced to flee to Nottingham, about 100 miles away, and construct his machines in secrecy.
8
He also faced competition from imitation versions of his invention, so he applied for and received a patent for the spinning jenny in 1770.
9
Unfortunately for Hargreaves, because he had sold a number of such machines prior to receiving patent protection, his legal recourse against imitations was limited.
23
9. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in paragraph 4? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information. A
Hargreaves did not have patent protection, but did not need it because imitation machines were illegal.
B
Hargreaves’s legal recourse was reduced because imitation machines already had their own patents.
C
The patent protection that Hargreaves received reduced his legal options for creating new inventions.
D
Hargreaves’s legal options against copycat machines were reduced because he sold some machines before getting patent protection.
10. The word “proliferated” in the passage is closest in meaning to A
blossomed
B
fluctuated
C
plunged
D
dispersed
13
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Reading E: Mixed
11. According to paragraph 4, all of the following occurred as a result of Hargreaves selling his invention EXCEPT: A
The price of spun yarn plummeted.
B
Textile makers resisted the new method of thread manufacturing.
C
The capacity to manufacture thread became greater.
D
Some competitors revolted by demolishing his property.
P2
Paragraph 2
S1
At the time, spinning wheels were used to turn cotton fibers into yarn and other threads for use in making cloth.
2–3
A The operator turned the wheel, which in turn spun components of the machine called the
flyer and spindle. The flyer was responsible for “spinning” the fibers, that is, for twisting the raw fibers at an appropriate rate to produce thread. 4
B Placed horizontally, the spindle was responsible for collecting the finished thread, with the
flyer next to it.
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5
C According to a popular myth, in 1764, James Hargreaves (1720–1778) was in his workshop and observed that a spinning wheel had been knocked over by his daughter, Jenny, but was still spinning, along with the spindle, which now pointed vertically.
6
D It dawned on him that it would be possible to place multiple spindles vertically, each with its own flyer, and have the entire assembly powered by a single wheel operated by one person.
Look at the part of the passage that is displayed above. The letters [A], [B], [C], and [D] indicate where the following sentence could be added. 12. In the middle of the eighteenth century, a man in Northern England realized this design could be improved. A
Choice A
B
Choice B
C
Choice C
D
Choice D
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Chapter 23
Select from the six phrases below THREE that correctly characterize the spinning jenny and TWO that correctly characterize the spinning wheel, according to the passage. One of the phrases will NOT be used. This question is worth 2 points.
Spinning Jenny
Spinning Wheel
•
•
•
•
•
13. A Used a single horizontal spindle B
Used a single vertical spindle
C
Used multiple spindles
D
Invented by James Hargreaves
E
Used by many weavers at the beginning of the 1700s
F
Inspired development of similar machines in other industries
23.3 Fracking and the Environment The 2010 documentary film Gasland features a man in Colorado lighting the water from his home faucet on fire. The water is flammable because of methane, also known as natural gas, apparently released into his groundwater source from hydraulic fracturing in his area. According to some researchers, this phenomenon has become common in several parts of the United States.
23
What exactly is hydraulic fracturing, also known as “fracking,” and why has it become commonplace? Fracking is a drilling procedure designed to extract hard-to-reach resources from below the land’s surface. In particular, fracking has become the default procedure for unearthing natural gas deposits that are embedded in openings within large shale rock formations. The process is as follows: first, a traditional well, similar to that used to reach petroleum, is drilled to a specified depth. Then the well takes a 90-degree turn, so that it is now running horizontal, or parallel to the surface. Once the wellbore1 has been drilled a sufficient distance, it is then flooded with a liquid mixture known as “fracking fluid.” This fluid is pumped into the wellbore at a tremendously high pressure, which causes the shale rock to split apart, freeing the natural gas and other resources trapped within the rock formation. These resources can then be much more easily taken out from the ground. Since the 1950s, over 1 million fracking procedures at roughly 100,000 fracking wells have been completed in the United States. Natural gas has become an attractive fuel resource because it is abundant in the Marcellus shale formation, found across much of Pennsylvania and Ohio and parts of neighboring states, as well as in several other formations in Kansas, Colorado, Oklahoma, and Texas. Additionally, natural gas is considered a “cleanburning” fuel, because it releases much less carbon dioxide, nitric oxide, and sulfur oxide than other fuel
wellbore1: the hole created in a drilling process for natural resources
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Chapter 23
Reading E: Mixed
sources (particularly coal) when it is burned. Fracking represents the most efficient conventional method to access this fuel source. However, fracking creates numerous environmental problems by the very nature of the means used to extract the natural gas. First, fracking fluid itself is anything but safe. It primarily consists of water, with a proprietary series of additives for various purposes needed for the fracking process. Additives include hundreds of toxic substances such as solvents, surfactants, biocides, friction reducers, and so on. The exact mix used in any given operation can vary based on several factors, and companies are not legally required to publish an exact list of chemicals used. For any fracking operation, a substantial amount of this fluid must be employed. A fracking site will require 2 to 10 million gallons (about 8 to 38 million liters) of fluid; this fluid must be brought to the site by tanker trucks, which typically have a capacity of about 5,000 gallons (19,000 liters). This is in addition to the equipment and pumping trucks that the site will require. Thus, thousands of tanker truck trips may be required to complete a given well. When the fluid is pumped into the ground, an attempt is made to contain and recover it, but some fracking fluid does seep into the rock sediment, and this seepage can contaminate nearby groundwater sources. The recovered fluid, known in the industry as “wastewater,” must be contained above ground and disposed of properly. This task is nontrivial, given the sheer volume of fluid required, and little government oversight is applied to ensure that fracking companies follow safe practices.
23
Wastewater is not the only potential source of environmental complications from fracking. There is strong evidence to suggest that fracking can cause earthquakes. Research claims that more than half of the earthquakes in Texas in the last 40 years have been triggered by oil and gas drilling activity, with the preponderance coming from hydraulic fracturing. The pace of growth in earthquakes is even more staggering in recent years, as fracking has mushroomed in several parts of the United States. According to the United States Geological Survey, during the period 1973–2008, there were approximately 20 measurable earthquakes in the central and eastern United States per year. In 2014, there were more than 600, and in 2015, over 1,000. While most of these earthquakes were minor, with no structural damage to any buildings, the occurrence has become so common that the phrase “injection-induced seismicity” has been coined to describe it. Now answer the questions.
P1
Paragraph 1
S1
The 2010 documentary film Gasland features a man in Colorado lighting the water from his home faucet on fire.
2
The water is flammable because of methane, also known as natural gas, apparently released into his groundwater source from hydraulic fracturing in his area.
3
According to some researchers, this phenomenon has become common in several parts of the United States.
16
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Reading E: Mixed
Chapter 23
1. The word “flammable” in the passage is closest in meaning to A
potable
B
incendiary
C
poisonous
D
incombustible
2. According to paragraph 1, which of the following is true regarding groundwater contamination that may be caused by hydraulic fracturing? A
It is not the only problem potentially caused by hydraulic fracturing.
B
It is causing methane to leak into hydraulic fracturing sites.
C
It is caused by sources originating from outside the United States.
D
It seems to be happening in locations other than the one mentioned.
P2
Paragraph 2
S1
What exactly is hydraulic fracturing, also known as “fracking,” and why has it become commonplace?
2
Fracking is a drilling procedure designed to extract hard-to-reach resources from below the land’s surface.
3
In particular, fracking has become the default procedure for unearthing natural gas deposits that are embedded in openings within large shale rock formations.
4
The process is as follows: first, a traditional well, similar to that used to reach petroleum, is drilled to a specified depth.
5
Then the well takes a 90-degree turn, so that it is now running horizontal, or parallel to the surface.
6
Once the wellbore has been drilled a sufficient distance, it is then flooded with a liquid mixture known as “fracking fluid.”
7
This fluid is pumped into the wellbore at a tremendously high pressure, which causes the shale rock to split apart, freeing the natural gas and other resources trapped within the rock formation.
8
These resources can then be much more easily taken out from the ground.
9
Since the 1950s, over 1 million fracking procedures at roughly 100,000 fracking wells have been completed in the United States.
23
17
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Chapter 23
Reading E: Mixed
3. The word “unearthing” in the passage is closest in meaning to A
extracting
B
cleansing
C
identifying
D
implanting
4. Why does the author use the phrases “drilled to a specified depth” and “drilled a sufficient distance”? A
To emphasize the fundamental difference between depth and distance
B
To suggest that some fracking wells are drilled deeply while others are drilled to more shallow depth
C
To describe the lengths of the vertical and horizontal portions of the wellbore
D
To demonstrate that depth and distance are equivalent in the context of fracking wells
5. Paragraph 2 suggests which of the following about fracking in the United States?
23
A
The United States is the first country to extract natural gas via fracking.
B
More than one fracking procedure can be performed at a single well.
C
The process used in the Unites States is different from that used in many other countries.
D
The process used in the United States has changed substantially since the 1950s.
P3
Paragraph 3
S1
Natural gas has become an attractive fuel resource because it is abundant in the Marcellus shale formation, found across much of Pennsylvania and Ohio and parts of neighboring states, as well as in several other formations in Kansas, Colorado, Oklahoma, and Texas.
2
Additionally, natural gas is considered a “clean-burning” fuel, because it releases much less carbon dioxide, nitric oxide, and sulfur oxide than other fuel sources (particularly coal) when it is burned.
3
Fracking represents the most efficient conventional method to access this fuel source.
4
However, fracking creates numerous environmental problems by the very nature of the means used to extract the natural gas.
6. According to paragraph 3, which is the following is NOT a reason why fracking has become a common practice? A
It is a highly efficient method for retrieving natural gas.
B
The natural gas extracted by fracking releases less in the way of pollutants than many other fuels do.
C
Natural gas is found abundantly in many states, such as Pennsylvania.
D
It has few side effects that can affect the environment in a detrimental way.
18
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Reading E: Mixed
Chapter 23
7. The word “conventional” in the passage is closest in meaning to A
established
B
pioneering
C
reliable
D
experimental
P4
Paragraph 4
S1
First, fracking fluid itself is anything but safe.
2
It primarily consists of water, with a proprietary series of additives for various purposes needed for the fracking process.
3
Additives include hundreds of toxic substances such as solvents, surfactants, biocides, friction reducers, and so on.
4
The exact mix used in any given operation can vary based on several factors, and companies are not legally required to publish an exact list of chemicals used.
5
For any fracking operation, a substantial amount of this fluid must be employed.
6
A fracking site will require 2 to 10 million gallons (about 8 to 38 million liters) of fluid; this fluid must be brought to the site by tanker trucks, which typically have a capacity of about 5,000 gallons (19,000 liters).
7
This is in addition to the equipment and pumping trucks that the site will require.
8
Thus, thousands of tanker truck trips may be required to complete a given well.
9
When the fluid is pumped into the ground, an attempt is made to contain and recover it, but some fracking fluid does seep into the rock sediment, and this seepage can contaminate nearby groundwater sources.
10
The recovered fluid, known in the industry as “wastewater,” must be contained above ground and disposed of properly.
11
This task is nontrivial, given the sheer volume of fluid required, and little government oversight is applied to ensure that fracking companies follow safe practices.
23
8. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in paragraph 4? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information. A
Attempts to collect fracking fluid are typically able to contain everything that was pumped into the ground.
B
Fracking fluid that seeps into the rock sediment can contaminate groundwater.
C
When attempts to collect fracking fluid pumped into the ground are not entirely successful, fluid that escapes can contaminate groundwater.
D
Fracking fluid is pumped into the rock sediment, causing groundwater contamination and requiring collection.
19
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Chapter 23
Reading E: Mixed
9. The word “nontrivial” in the passage is closest in meaning to A
impractical
B
significant
C
negligible
D
costly
10. According to paragraph 4, which of the following is true of the fluid used for a fracking operation? A
The precise mixtures of chemicals in fracking fluid are publicly known.
B
Millions of gallons of fluid are typically used for a single fracking site.
C
Government oversight helps ensure proper wastewater disposal.
D
Most of the recovered fluid can be reused in other fracking operations.
P5
23
Paragraph 5
S1
Wastewater is not the only potential source of environmental complications from fracking.
2
There is strong evidence to suggest that fracking can cause earthquakes.
3
Research claims that more than half of the earthquakes in Texas in the last 40 years have been triggered by oil and gas drilling activity, with the preponderance coming from hydraulic fracturing.
4
The pace of growth in earthquakes is even more staggering in recent years, as fracking has mushroomed in several parts of the United States.
5
According to the United States Geological Survey, during the period 1973–2008, there were approximately 20 measurable earthquakes in the central and eastern United States per year.
6
In 2014, there were more than 600, and in 2015, over 1,000.
7
While most of these earthquakes were minor, with no structural damage to any buildings, the occurrence has become so common that the phrase “injection-induced seismicity” has been coined to describe it.
11. According to paragraph 5, the concept of “injection-induced seismicity” is best described as A
earthquake activity in some locations caused by fracking operations
B
mechanisms by which earthquakes trigger hydraulic fracturing
C
increases in hydraulic fracturing as a proportion of all oil and gas drilling activity
D
the degree to which hydraulic fracturing makes individual earthquakes more severe
20
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Reading E: Mixed
Chapter 23
12. According to paragraph 5, which of the following is true of recent increases in the number of earthquakes in the United States? A
The increases, high in the 1970s through the first decade of the 2000s, have been smaller more recently.
B
The increases are dramatic and can only be explained by hydraulic fracturing.
C
A majority of the new earthquakes each year are relatively mild.
D
New developments may reduce the increases in fracking-related earthquakes.
P2 S1
Paragraph 2 What exactly is hydraulic fracturing, also known as “fracking,” and why has it become commonplace?
2–4
A Fracking is a drilling procedure designed to extract hard-to-reach resources from below the land surface. In particular, fracking has become the default procedure for unearthing natural gas deposits that are embedded in openings within large shale rock formations. The process is as follows: first, a traditional well, similar to that used to reach petroleum, is drilled to a specified depth.
5–6
B Then the well takes a 90-degree turn, so that it is now running horizontal, or parallel to the
surface. Once the wellbore has been drilled a sufficient distance, it is then flooded with a liquid mixture known as “fracking fluid.” 7–8
C This fluid is pumped into the wellbore at a tremendously high pressure, which causes the
23
shale rock to split apart, freeing the natural gas and other resources trapped within the rock formation. These resources can then be much more easily taken out from the ground. 9
D Since the 1950s, over 1 million fracking procedures at roughly 100,000 fracking wells have
been completed in the United States.
Look at the part of the passage that is displayed above. The letters [A], [B], [C], and [D] indicate where the following sentence could be added. 13. Once completed, the fracking procedure can be performed again on the same well to extract resources not reached the first time. A
Choice A
B
Choice B
C
Choice C
D
Choice D
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Chapter 23
Reading E: Mixed
An introductory sentence for a brief summary of the passage is provided below. Complete the summary by selecting the THREE answer choices that express the most important ideas in the passage. Some sentences do not belong in the summary because they express ideas that are not presented in the passage or are minor ideas in the passage. This question is worth 2 points.
14. Hydraulic fracturing is an important technique for extracting valuable fuel resources, but its environmental consequences seem to be serious.
23
A
Fracking first emerged in the 1950s as a widely used natural gas extraction procedure in the United States.
B
The fluid used in fracking is laden with toxic chemicals and is difficult to dispose of efficiently.
C
Fracking has become common because it efficiently extracts natural gas, a cleaner-burning and abundant fuel.
D
The bore of a fracking well is first drilled vertically to a specific depth, much in the same way as for petroleum wells.
E
An advantage of fracking is that relatively little investment is required to set up and manage operations.
F
Fracking has been associated with a rapid increase in the number of earthquakes in the United States.
23.4 Dien Bien Phu Division 312 Division 308 Air ip
str
French position French position
Division 316
French position
French position
A watershed event in the twentieth-century saga that effectively ended Western colonialism was the defeat of the French army by the Viet Minh under General Giap at Dien Bien Phu in 1954. This victory shocked the Western world, essentially won the First Indochina War for the Viet Minh, and encouraged similar revolutions, especially in French-controlled North Africa. To understand and appreciate the causes and
22
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Reading E: Mixed
Chapter 23
results of this turning point, one must address several questions. Strategically, how did the French miscalculate their strength and objective? Tactically, how was a modern army bested by irregular guerrilla forces? And how did one moderately-sized engagement disproportionately influence geopolitical developments worldwide? When General Navarre took command of the French forces in 1953, the Viet Minh advance threatened not only the French position there, but also that in neighboring Laos. Lacking the resources for a defensive front, Navarre hoped to cut the Viet Minh supply lines and defend Laos by establishing isolated fortresses, which were reliant on air supply. This approach had produced a French victory at Na San in 1952. However, the French command overlooked many strategic differences when establishing their forces in Dien Bien Phu in November 1953. At Na San, the French enjoyed extensive air support, and their superior artillery commanded the high ground. In the valley of Dien Bien Phu, however, they chose positions that left the surrounding hills to the Viet Minh, and they did not have the same air support and supply capacities. Furthermore, faulty intelligence left the French unaware of the vast quantity of men and artillery that General Giap had been able to transport through difficult terrain. On a broader strategic level, the entire operation was rendered pointless when the French government relieved Navarre of the responsibility of defending Laos a week before the campaign began, but he did not receive that directive until two weeks after the French dug in. These strategic errors paved the way for a tactical debacle. The French troops at Dien Bien Phu numbered about 11,000, eventually rising to 16,000. By late December, the French position was surrounded and began to unravel; a nearby garrison of 2,100 at Lai Chau attempted to join the beleaguered defenders but lost 90 percent of its strength in ambushes along the way. General Giap deployed 50,000 fighters and dug his artillery into commanding hillside positions that were impervious to the French guns. The battle commenced in earnest in March 1954. The French defense consisted of eight fortified positions. The Viet Minh artillery decimated the French and killed two of the commanding officers. Within a couple of days, the Viet Minh overran two of these strongholds, and the Vietnamese ethnic Tai troops manning a third deserted en masse.
23
The French troops paid dearly for their generals’ miscalculations. Their commanders underestimated the resourcefulness and military prowess of General Giap; their artillery was helpless; and the Viet Minh advance made the airstrip inoperative, leaving the French dependent on inadequate supply by parachute. After a two-week lull, vicious seesawing warfare continued from late March into early April. The desperate French inflicted heavy casualties on the Viet Minh but still steadily lost ground until even parachute resupply was impossible. Throughout April, the Viet Minh tightened their grip. In early May, a series of assaults overran the remaining French positions and, despite a breakout attempt, virtually all of the defenders were killed or captured. The Viet Minh won a costly but decisive victory. The immediate result was to spur an agreement for French withdrawal and the division of Vietnam, with the Viet Minh controlling the northern half. Consequently, a weakened France then faced other expensive and eventually futile conflicts with insurgents in its North African colonies. In Vietnam, the southern leaders, backed by the United States, broke the terms of peace, and conflict resumed. In many ways, the battle of Dien Bien Phu eventually led to the Second Indochina War, known in the United States as the Vietnam War. In that war, it has been argued that General Giap employed the same strategy in the assault on Khe Sanh, but vastly superior United States air power and weaponry resulted in a bloody defeat for the attackers, at least at first.
23
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Chapter 23
Reading E: Mixed
Now answer the questions.
P1
Paragraph 1
S1
A watershed event in the twentieth-century saga that effectively ended Western colonialism was the defeat of the French army by the Viet Minh under General Giap at Dien Bien Phu in 1954.
2
This victory shocked the Western world, essentially won the First Indochina War for the Viet Minh, and encouraged similar revolutions, especially in French-controlled North Africa.
3
To understand and appreciate the causes and results of this turning point, one must address several questions.
4
Strategically, how did the French miscalculate their strength and objective?
5
Tactically, how was a modern army bested by irregular guerrilla forces?
6
And how did one moderately-sized engagement disproportionately influence geopolitical developments worldwide?
1. According to paragraph 1, which of the following is true about the Viet Minh victory at Dien Bien Phu?
23
A
It cost the French army more casualties than it did the Viet Minh guerrillas.
B
It was an outcome widely expected in the West.
C
It ultimately turned into an expensive stalemate.
D
It inspired revolutions in North Africa.
24
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Reading E: Mixed
P2
Chapter 23
Paragraph 2
S1
When General Navarre took command of the French forces in 1953, the Viet Minh advance threatened not only the French position there, but also that in neighboring Laos.
2
Lacking the resources for a defensive front, Navarre hoped to cut the Viet Minh supply lines and defend Laos by establishing isolated fortresses, which were reliant on air supply.
3
This approach had produced a French victory at Na San in 1952.
4
However, the French command overlooked many strategic differences when establishing their forces in Dien Bien Phu in November 1953.
5
At Na San, the French enjoyed extensive air support, and their superior artillery commanded the high ground.
6
In the valley of Dien Bien Phu, however, they chose positions that left the surrounding hills to the Viet Minh, and they did not have the same air support and supply capacities.
7
Furthermore, faulty intelligence left the French unaware of the vast quantity of men and artillery that General Giap had been able to transport through difficult terrain.
8
On a broader strategic level, the entire operation was rendered pointless when the French government relieved Navarre of the responsibility of defending Laos a week before the campaign began, but he did not receive that directive until two weeks after the French dug in.
9
These strategic errors paved the way for a tactical debacle.
2. It can be inferred from the discussion in paragraph 2 that the success of the French plan would require A
faulty intelligence
B
air and artillery superiority
C
a defensive front
D
troops that were better trained
23
3. The word “debacle” in the passage is closest in meaning to A
impasse
B
triumph
C
disaster
D
reaction
4. The phrase “rendered pointless” is closest in meaning to A
torn asunder
B
turned awry
C
made immoral
D
deprived of purpose
25
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Chapter 23
Reading E: Mixed
5. Why does the author discuss Na San in the highlighted sentence? A
To detail advantages that Dien Bien Phu lacked
B
To highlight the hopelessness of the French position at Dien Bien Phu
C
To underscore the military prowess of General Giap
D
To illustrate the importance of defending Laos
P3
Paragraph 3
S1
The French troops at Dien Bien Phu numbered about 11,000, eventually rising to 16,000.
2
By late December, the French position was surrounded and began to unravel; a nearby garrison of 2,100 at Lai Chau attempted to join the beleaguered defenders but lost 90 percent of its strength in ambushes along the way.
3
General Giap deployed 50,000 fighters and dug his artillery into commanding hillside positions that were impervious to the French guns.
4
The battle commenced in earnest in March 1954.
5
The French defense consisted of eight fortified positions.
6
The Viet Minh artillery decimated the French and killed two of the commanding officers.
7
Within a couple of days, the Viet Minh overran two of these strongholds, and the Vietnamese ethnic Tai troops manning a third deserted en masse.
23
6. Why does the author mention that “a nearby garrison of 2,100 at Lai Chau attempted to join the beleaguered defenders but lost 90 percent of its strength in ambushes along the way”? A
To illustrate the bravery of the French soldiers
B
To decry the bloodshed of the war
C
To describe a way in which the French position fell apart
D
To show how the French lost an opportunity to win the battle
7. According to paragraph 3, for what immediate reason did the French-fortified position held by Tai troops fall? A
The defending soldiers fled as a group.
B
The Viet Minh artillery decimated the defending soldiers.
C
The defending soldiers were ambushed by Viet Minh troops.
D
The commanding officers of the defending soldiers were killed.
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Reading E: Mixed
Chapter 23
8. The word “impervious” is closest in meaning to A
invulnerable
B
inevitable
C
intransigent
D
inadequate
P4
Paragraph 4
S1
The French troops paid dearly for their generals’ miscalculations.
2
Their commanders underestimated the resourcefulness and military prowess of General Giap; their artillery was helpless; and the Viet Minh advance made the airstrip inoperative, leaving the French dependent on inadequate supply by parachute.
3
After a two-week lull, vicious seesawing warfare continued from late March into early April.
4
The desperate French inflicted heavy casualties on the Viet Minh but still steadily lost ground until even parachute resupply was impossible.
5
Throughout April, the Viet Minh tightened their grip.
6
In early May, a series of assaults overran the remaining French positions and, despite a breakout attempt, virtually all of the defenders were killed or captured.
7
The Viet Minh won a costly but decisive victory.
23
9. Which of the following statements about the French defeat is supported by the information in paragraph 4? A
Given the circumstances, the final outcome could not have been avoided.
B
Miscalculations by French commanders had dire results for their side.
C
Despite its strategic importance, the Viet Minh victory was too costly.
D
In view of the French army’s technology, the Viet Minh were surprised by their victory.
10. The word “seesawing” in the passage is closest in meaning to A
brutish
B
intermittent
C
back-and-forth
D
devastating
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Chapter 23
Reading E: Mixed
11. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in paragraph 4? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information. A
The loss of the airstrip forced resupply by parachute and doomed the French.
B
Some degree of French blindness to the capabilities of the guerrillas led them to misjudge General Giap’s skill.
C
French handicaps included ineffective artillery and air supply, along with underestimation of their adversaries.
D
The failure of their artillery to dislodge the attackers contributed more than any other factor to the defeat of the French.
P5
23
Paragraph 5
S1
The immediate result was to spur an agreement for French withdrawal and the division of Vietnam, with the Viet Minh controlling the northern half.
2
Consequently, a weakened France then faced other expensive and eventually futile conflicts with insurgents in its North African colonies.
3
In Vietnam, the southern leaders, backed by the United States, broke the terms of the peace, and conflict resumed.
4
In many ways, the battle of Dien Bien Phu led to the Second Indochina War, known in the United States as the Vietnam War.
5
In that war, it has been argued that General Giap employed the same strategy in the assault on Khe Sanh, but vastly superior United States air power and weaponry resulted in a bloody defeat for the attackers, at least at first.
12. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 5 as a result of the Viet Minh victory at Dien Bien Phu? A
United States military involvement in Vietnam
B
General Giap’s strategy at Khe Sanh
C
French conflicts with North African insurgents
D
Anti-war protests in Paris and the United States
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Reading E: Mixed
P5
Chapter 23
Paragraph 5
S1
The immediate result was to spur an agreement for French withdrawal and the division of Vietnam, with the Viet Minh controlling the northern half.
2
A Consequently, a weakened France then faced other expensive and eventually futile conflicts
with insurgents in its North African colonies. 3–4
B In Vietnam, the southern leaders backed by the United States broke the terms of the peace, and conflict resumed. In many ways, the battle of Dien Bien Phu led to the Second Indochina War, known in the United States as the Vietnam War.
5
C In that war, it has been argued that General Giap employed the same strategy in the assault on Khe Sanh, but vastly superior United States air power and weaponry resulted in a bloody defeat for the attackers, at least at first.
End
D
Look at the part of the passage that is displayed above. The letters [A], [B], [C], and [D] indicate where the following sentence could be added. 13. However, despite General Giap’s initial miscalculation, the military strength of his enemies did not ultimately prevail here either. A
Choice A
B
Choice B
C
Choice C
D
Choice D
23
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Chapter 23
Reading E: Mixed
An introductory sentence for a brief summary of the passage is provided below. Complete the summary by selecting the THREE answer choices that express the most important ideas in the passage. Some sentences do not belong in the summary because they express ideas that are not presented in the passage or are minor ideas in the passage. This question is worth 2 points.
14. The Viet Minh victory at Dien Bien Phu was an important milestone in the twentieth century’s wars of liberation.
23
A
The refusal of the United States to provide military assistance with both personnel and equipment betrayed the French.
B
Before the debacle at Dien Bien Phu, the French were arguably winning the war against the Viet Minh.
C
The victory led to Vietnam’s division and the Second Indochina War, as well as anti-French insurgency elsewhere.
D
Failures of intelligence, logistics, and combat support were major contributors to the French defeat.
E
Over several months, the French caused heavy Viet Minh losses but kept falling back until they were finally overpowered.
F
This victory revolutionized military tactics utilized by insurgents in Vietnam and North Africa.
23.5 Evidence of Global Warming There is some debate among politicians and the general citizenry as to whether global warming is real and to what extent it is man-made. However, among the vast majority of climate researchers, there is no controversy. For them, global warming is a fact, and most, if not all, of the global warming effects seen thus far are caused by the behavior of humanity. Where the controversy comes into play for scientists is in how severe the problem is, how quickly global temperatures will continue to rise, and how quickly damage to the planet will accrue as a result. Since the early 1900s, global temperatures have increased, on average, by 2.5 degrees Fahrenheit (about 1.4 degrees Celsius). This increase may not seem like much, but it places recent years near the top of the list of the hottest years ever recorded. The trend is also accelerating: most of this change has occurred since 1980, and new records are set nearly every year. Also, temperatures are rising much faster at the poles (above the Arctic Circle and below the Antarctic Circle), with temperature increases occurring there at approximately double the global average. This phenomenon is triggering a flood of ice melting at the polar caps, a development that will only quicken as temperatures there continue to increase. Global warming is caused by an increase in atmospheric gases known as “greenhouse gases.” These gases help trap radiation originating from the Sun that the Earth’s surface reemits. Some degree of trapping this radiation is a good thing—without it, the Earth would be too cold to support most life forms. However, too great an amount of greenhouse gases means that more radiation will be absorbed and temperatures will rise. The most important greenhouse gas is carbon dioxide, although other gases, such as methane, also contribute to the problem. Burning of fossil fuels, such as coal, oil, oil by-products, and natural gas, is the
30
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Reading E: Mixed
Chapter 23
primary cause of increased carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere. Deforestation also contributes to the problem, as a decreased number of trees means that less carbon dioxide is absorbed from the atmosphere and converted into oxygen. Finally, carbon dioxide and methane are by-products of increased animal populations, both from increased human populations and from the livestock used as a food source to support those additional humans. Carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere now measure just over 400 parts per million (ppm), which is much higher than at any time in more than 500,000 years. For context, carbon dioxide levels have been around 280 ppm during more recent historical periods of warmth on Earth, and levels of around 200 ppm are associated with ice ages. The impact of the warming of the climate is felt in several broad areas globally. Ocean level rise is perhaps the most significant. Warm water expands; moreover, polar land ice melting causes ocean levels to become higher. (The melting of sea ice, in fact, does not directly raise the ocean levels, because the ice was already floating in the sea before melting, but it does change the mineral composition of ocean waters, potentially altering ocean currents and causing difficulties for marine life.) Within the last century, ocean levels have climbed 7 inches (about 18 centimeters) worldwide. Computer models estimate that this rise will accelerate, with an additional 12 to 36 inches (30 to 91 centimeters) of ocean level rise expected by 2100. Because more than 100 million people live within 36 inches (91 centimeters) of sea level, the impact on civilization could be profound. Climate warming also has other serious effects on the planet. As glaciers in mountainous areas melt, much of the water runoff is not trapped on its way to the ocean. The shrinking of these glaciers deprives local populations of a critical source of fresh water. Global warming has also subtly changed many ecosystems, most notably ocean coral reefs. These ecosystems can become uninhabitable for existing plant and animal species. It is estimated that over one million species, most of which are marine life, have become extinct as a result of these events.
23
Finally, climate warming has increased the intensity and frequency of violent storms. In the North Atlantic, for example, tropical storms and hurricanes are now more than twice as frequent as they were a century ago. These storms can cause tremendous damage to coastal ecosystems as well as to heavily populated areas, with striking recent examples being the devastation caused by Hurricane Katrina in 2005 and by Hurricanes Harvey and Irma in 2017. Now answer the questions.
P1
Paragraph 1
S1
There is some debate among politicians and the general citizenry as to whether global warming is real and to what extent it is man-made.
2
However, among the vast majority of climate researchers, there is no controversy.
3
For them, global warming is a fact, and most, if not all, of the global warming effects seen thus far are caused by the behavior of humanity.
4
Where the controversy comes into play for scientists is in how severe the problem is, how quickly global temperatures will continue to rise, and how quickly damage to the planet will accrue as a result.
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Chapter 23
Reading E: Mixed
1. According to paragraph 1, all of the following are sources of significant scientific debate about global warming EXCEPT: A
whether the phenomenon is caused by humans
B
how severe the issue is
C
how rapidly temperatures will rise worldwide
D
how fast the Earth will be damaged
P2
Paragraph 2
S1
Since the early 1900s, global temperatures have increased, on average, by 2.5 degrees Fahrenheit (about 1.4 degrees Celsius).
2
This increase may not seem like much, but it places recent years near the top of the list of the hottest years ever recorded.
3
The trend is also accelerating: most of this change has occurred since 1980, and new records are set nearly every year.
4
Also, temperatures are rising much faster at the poles (above the Arctic Circle and below the Antarctic Circle), with temperature increases occurring there at approximately double the global average.
5
This phenomenon is triggering a flood of ice melting at the polar caps, a development that will only quicken as temperatures there continue to increase.
23
2. According to paragraph 2, what is true of global temperatures since the early 1900s? A
They are unchanged in most parts of the world.
B
Increases are prompting a wave of polar ice melting.
C
They were increasing most rapidly before the 1980s.
D
Increases are spread relatively evenly across the Earth.
3. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in paragraph 2? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information. A
Temperatures at the poles are rising twice as quickly as before.
B
The increase in temperature above the Arctic circle is double that below the Antarctic circle.
C
Temperature increases at the poles have been about double the global average.
D
The global average for temperature increases is double that at the poles.
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P3
Chapter 23
Paragraph 3
S1
Global warming is caused by an increase in atmospheric gases known as “greenhouse gases.”
2
These gases help trap radiation originating from the Sun that the Earth’s surface reemits.
3
Some degree of trapping this radiation is a good thing—without it, the Earth would be too cold to support most life forms.
4
However, too great an amount of greenhouse gases means that more radiation will be absorbed and temperatures will rise.
4. The word “absorbed” in the passage is closest in meaning to A
transmitted through
B
reflected back
C
soaked up
D
emitted outward
P4
Paragraph 4
S1
The most important greenhouse gas is carbon dioxide, although other gases, such as methane, also contribute to the problem.
2
Burning of fossil fuels, such as coal, oil, oil by-products, and natural gas, is the primary cause of increased carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere.
3
Deforestation also contributes to the problem, as a decreased number of trees means that less carbon dioxide is absorbed from the atmosphere and converted into oxygen.
4
Finally, carbon dioxide and methane are by-products of increased animal populations, both from increased human populations and from the livestock used as a food source to support those additional humans.
5
Carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere now measure just over 400 parts per million (ppm), which is much higher than at any time in more than 500,000 years.
6
For context, carbon dioxide levels have been around 280 ppm during more recent historical periods of warmth on Earth, and levels of around 200 ppm are associated with ice ages.
23
5. According to paragraph 4, which of the following is a cause of increased greenhouse gases other than carbon dioxide? A
The ice ages
B
The burning of natural gas
C
Deforestation
D
Farm animals that feed humans
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Reading E: Mixed
6. According to paragraph 4, which of the following is true of current atmospheric concentrations of carbon dioxide? A
They are similar to those measured during historically warmer periods.
B
They dramatically exceed any level recorded during the past half-million years.
C
They approximate levels typically observed during ice ages.
D
They appear to be the direct result of global warming.
7. The word “primary” in the passage is closest in meaning to A
only
B
leading
C
precise
D
likely
P5
Paragraph 5
S1
The impact of the warming of the climate is felt in several broad areas globally.
2
Ocean level rise is perhaps the most significant.
3
Warm water expands; moreover, polar land ice melting causes ocean levels to become higher.
4
(The melting of sea ice, in fact, does not directly raise the ocean levels, because the ice was already floating in the sea before melting, but it does change the mineral composition of ocean waters, potentially altering ocean currents and causing difficulties for marine life.)
5
Within the last century, ocean levels have climbed 7 inches (about 18 centimeters) worldwide.
6
Computer models estimate that this rise will accelerate, with an additional 12 to 36 inches (30 to 91 centimeters) of ocean level rise expected by 2100.
7
Because more than 100 million people live within 36 inches (91 centimeters) of sea level, the impact on civilization could be profound.
23
8. Why does the author mention that “it does change the mineral composition of ocean waters, potentially altering ocean currents and causing difficulties for marine life”? A
To point out that melting sea ice can also cause ocean levels to rise
B
To point out that melting sea ice is not benign ecologically
C
To indicate what is probably the most important problem associated with global warming
D
To shift to a longer discussion of problems caused by global warming other than ocean level rise
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Reading E: Mixed
Chapter 23
9. The word “profound” in the passage is closest in meaning to A
acute
B
noticeable
C
marginal
D
cumulative
10. Paragraph 5 supports which of the following statements? A
Even if projections are correct, by 2100 fewer than 100 million people will be affected by rising sea levels.
B
After 2100, given current trends, ocean levels are projected to stop increasing.
C
Climate warming has a greater impact on the melting of land ice than sea ice.
D
The mineral composition of ocean water at present is important for some marine life.
Paragraphs 6 & 7 P6 S1
Climate warming also has other serious effects on the planet.
2
As glaciers in mountainous areas melt, much of the water runoff is not trapped on its way to the ocean.
3
The shrinking of these glaciers deprives local populations of a critical source of fresh water.
4
Global warming has also subtly changed many ecosystems, most notably ocean coral reefs.
5
These ecosystems can become uninhabitable for existing plant and animal species.
6
It is estimated that over one million species, most of which are marine life, have become extinct as a result of these events.
P7 S1
23
Finally, climate warming has increased the intensity and frequency of violent storms.
2
In the North Atlantic, for example, tropical storms and hurricanes are now more than twice as frequent as they were a century ago.
3
These storms can cause tremendous damage to coastal ecosystems as well as to heavily populated areas, with striking recent examples being the devastation caused by Hurricane Katrina in 2005 and by Hurricanes Harvey and Irma in 2017.
11. The word “intensity” in the passage is closest in meaning to A
regularity
B
immediacy
C
anxiety
D
severity
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Chapter 23
Reading E: Mixed
12. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 6 or paragraph 7 as a consequence of the warming of the climate? A
The impact of ocean level rise on coastal ecosystems and human habitations
B
The contraction or disappearance of sources of fresh water
C
The transformation of some ecosystems into uninhabitable zones
D
An increase in the frequency of powerful storms
P6
Paragraph 6
S1
Climate warming also has other serious effects on the planet.
2
A As glaciers in mountainous areas melt, much of the water runoff is not trapped on its way to the ocean.
3
B The shrinking of these glaciers deprives local populations of a critical source of fresh water.
4–6
C Global warming has also subtly changed many ecosystems, most notably ocean coral reefs. These
ecosystems can become uninhabitable for existing plant and animal species. It is estimated that over one million species, most of which are marine life, have become extinct as a result of these events. End
D
Look at the part of the passage that is displayed above. The letters [A], [B], [C], and [D] indicate where the following sentence could be added.
23
13. Such water, collected directly off the melting glaciers by these nearby inhabitants, may be the only drinkable water for hundreds of miles. A
Choice A
B
Choice B
C
Choice C
D
Choice D
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Reading E: Mixed
axon
Chapter 23
electric current
An introductory sentence for a brief summary of the passage is provided below. Complete the summary by selecting the THREE answer choices that express the most important ideas in the passage. Some sentences do not belong in the summary because they express ideas that are not presented in the passage or are minor ideas in the passage. This question is worth 2 points.
14. With regard to global warming, the only significant debate among researchers is about the speed and strength of the ensuing effects. A
Temperatures are rising worldwide at an accelerating pace, often setting new records.
B
Methane, which is produced by increasing animal populations, is an even more potent greenhouse gas than carbon dioxide.
C
Even though temperature rise is lower at the poles than elsewhere, sea ice melting is contributing to rising ocean levels.
D
Carbon dioxide, which is generated by fossil fuel combustion and other sources, is the key greenhouse gas causing global warming.
E
Climate warming is raising ocean levels, withering sources of fresh water, harming ecosystems, and amplifying storms.
F
Greenhouse gases trap radiation from the Sun indirectly by absorbing the energy re-released by the Earth’s surface when sunlight strikes and warms it.
myelin
23
23.6 Chimpanzee Intelligence axon
electric current
myelin It is often reported that human beings share about 99 percent of their genetic code with chimpanzees. This is a slight overstatement, but not by much: only 1.2 percent of the human genome differs from that of the chimp. By contrast, consider that the genomes of the chimpanzee, or African ape, and the Asian ape, called the orangutan, differ by roughly 3 percent, which is more than twice as much. And yet while the chimpanzee is known as one of the more intelligent mammals—it can learn words, use tools to retrieve food, and both experience and express human-like emotion such as grief—it is also strikingly not human in its cognitive abilities. So what could account for this difference in cognitive performance, given the similarity in the genetic codes of the two species?
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Chapter 23
Reading E: Mixed
To answer this question, scientists have taken many different approaches. Two of these approaches are discussed below. Imitation and Emulation. The behavior of young chimpanzees has been analyzed alongside the behavior of young human children in formal studies for more than a century. The majority of this research has led to the prevailing view that humans are better at imitation and chimps are better at emulation. Imitation and emulation are both forms of observational learning, but imitation focuses on reproducing an observed action with less regard to the results it produces, while emulation focuses on reproducing the results of the action. In other words, a human child would simply imitate a model’s actions, while baby chimpanzees would survey the model’s actions and determine how relevant they were to the environmental goal before reproducing them. While humans and chimps both, to a degree, demonstrate imitation and emulation, humans generally imitate more closely than chimps do. Another interesting finding is that children will imitate the behavior of other species as well, while chimpanzees will only imitate the behavior of other chimpanzees. So although chimpanzees do imitate, they do so less consistently and less broadly than do human children.
23
It is hypothesized that the fact that humans excel at imitation is in part what has allowed culture to accumulate. In fact, research has shown that human children often imitate too closely; they often imitate moves that are unnecessary in achieving a goal. Why do they do this? There is research suggesting that human children imitate not only to reproduce desired effects (such as finding a treat hidden inside a box), but also for social reasons: they copy other humans to be more “like them.” The human propensity for conformity, for identifying with others through similar behavior, is what gives rise to fads and trends. It is also a driver of in-group and out-of-group identification, a feature of human behavior across cultures. In this way, over-imitation is a human trait that helps drive cultural transmission over generations—a characteristic of the human species that separates it from other primates. The Timing of Myelination. Another distinction between humans and chimps has to do with the biological development of their brains—specifically, the timing and extent of brain development. In chimps, “myelination” ends earlier than it does in humans. Myelination is the process by which the neurons of the brain are coated in a fatty material called myelin. Myelin aids the conduction of electrical impulses along the axon of a neuron and helps preserve the electric current as it travels from one neuron to the next. As a result, an animal’s nervous system processes information more efficiently, with improved cognition and neural function. The chimpanzee brain reaches its adult level of myelination by the time it reaches sexual maturity. The human brain, however, continues to myelinate well into adulthood, long after sexual maturity has been reached. To what extent does the difference in myelination explain the difference in the cognitive abilities of adult humans and chimpanzees? Though the extent is unclear, it is a question that scientists continue to research in order to understand better what distinguishes human intelligence from chimp intelligence.
38
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Reading E: Mixed
Chapter 23
Now answer the questions.
Paragraphs 1 & 2 P1 S1
It is often reported that human beings share about 99 percent of their genetic code with chimpanzees.
2
This is a slight overstatement, but not by much: only 1.2 percent of the human genome differs from that of the chimp.
3
By contrast, consider that the genomes of the chimpanzee, or African ape, and the Asian ape, called the orangutan, differ by roughly 3 percent, which is more than twice as much.
4
And yet while the chimpanzee is known as one of the more intelligent mammals—it can learn words, use tools to retrieve food, and both experience and express human-like emotion such as grief—it is also strikingly not human in its cognitive abilities.
5
So what could account for this difference in cognitive performance, given the similarity in the genetic codes of the two species?
P2 S1 2
To answer this question, scientists have taken many different approaches. Two of these approaches are discussed below.
1. According to paragraph 1, the genetic codes of the orangutan and the chimpanzee differ by A
less than half the difference between human and chimpanzee genetic codes
B
more than twice the difference between human and chimpanzee genetic codes
C
about 1.2 percent
D
about 97 percent
P3
23
Paragraph 3
S1
Imitation and Emulation.
2
The behavior of young chimpanzees has been analyzed alongside the behavior of young human children in formal studies for more than a century.
3
The majority of this research has led to the prevailing view that humans are better at imitation and chimps are better at emulation.
4
Imitation and emulation are both forms of observational learning, but imitation focuses on reproducing an observed action with less regard to the results it produces, while emulation focuses on reproducing the results of the action.
5
In other words, a human child would simply imitate a model’s actions, while baby chimpanzees would survey the model’s actions and determine how relevant they were to the environmental goal before reproducing them.
39
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Chapter 23
Reading E: Mixed
2. According to paragraph 3, a difference between emulation and imitation is that A
emulation is a form of observational learning more advanced than imitation
B
imitation prioritizes observed actions more than emulation does
C
emulation focuses on end goals to a lesser degree than imitation does
D
imitation involves less accurate reproduction than emulation does
3. The word “prevailing” in the passage is closest in meaning to A
conflicting
B
beneficial
C
alternative
D
accepted
4. The word “they” in the passage refers to
23
A
the researchers
B
the human children
C
the model’s actions
D
the baby chimpanzees
P4
Paragraph 4
S1
While humans and chimps both, to a degree, demonstrate imitation and emulation, humans generally imitate more closely than chimps do.
2
Another interesting finding is that children will imitate the behavior of other species as well, while chimpanzees will only imitate the behavior of other chimpanzees.
3
So although chimpanzees do imitate, they do so less consistently and less broadly than do human children.
5. The word “demonstrate” in the passage is closest in meaning to A
display
B
determine
C
regulate
D
reinforce
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Reading E: Mixed
P5
Chapter 23
Paragraph 5
S1
It is hypothesized that the fact that humans excel at imitation is in part what has allowed culture to accumulate.
2
In fact, research has shown that human children often imitate too closely; they often imitate moves that are unnecessary in achieving a goal.
3
Why do they do this?
4
There is research suggesting that human children imitate not only to reproduce desired effects (such as finding a treat hidden inside a box), but also for social reasons: they copy other humans to be more “like them.”
5
The human propensity for conformity, for identifying with others through similar behavior, is what gives rise to fads and trends.
6
It is also a driver of in-group and out-of-group identification, a feature of human behavior across cultures.
7
In this way, over-imitation is a human trait that helps drive cultural transmission over generations—a characteristic of the human species that separates it from other primates.
6. According to paragraph 5, the human tendency to conform does which of the following? A
It combats in-group behavior.
B
It interferes with cultural transmission.
C
It generates social trends.
D
It is a product of emulation behavior.
23
7. In paragraph 5, the author mentions finding a treat inside a box in order to A
argue that children are less able to follow directions
B
indicate that children will pursue a goal even at high costs
C
illustrate the kind of goal that a child might have
D
show that humans are more driven by social reasons than chimpanzees are
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Chapter 23
Reading E: Mixed
Paragraphs 6 & 7 P6 S1 2
Another distinction between humans and chimps has to do with the biological development of their brains—specifically, the timing and extent of brain development.
3
In chimps, “myelination” ends earlier than it does in humans.
4
Myelination is the process by which the neurons of the brain are coated in a fatty material called myelin.
5
Myelin aids the conduction of electrical impulses along the axon of a neuron and helps preserve the electric current as it travels from one neuron to the next.
6
As a result, an animal’s nervous system processes information more efficiently, with improved cognition and neural function.
7
The chimpanzee brain reaches its adult level of myelination by the time it reaches sexual maturity.
8
The human brain, however, continues to myelinate well into adulthood, long after sexual maturity has been reached.
P7 S1 2
23
The Timing of Myelination.
To what extent does the difference in myelination explain the difference in the cognitive abilities of adult humans and chimpanzees? Though the extent is unclear, it is a question that scientists continue to research in order to understand better what distinguishes human intelligence from chimp intelligence.
8. All of the following are mentioned in paragraph 6 about myelination EXCEPT: A
It is a process by which neurons shed their fatty coating.
B
It ends later in humans than in chimpanzees.
C
It helps electrical impulses move through neurons.
D
It improves the efficiency of information processing in the brain.
9. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in the passage? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information. A
Human brains do not stop myelinating, even after sexual maturity has been achieved, until their demise.
B
Adult humans still undergo myelination in their brains after they are sexually mature.
C
Adult humans who are sexually mature no longer experience neural myelination.
D
Long after humans reach adulthood, their brains continue to myelinate until they reach sexual maturity.
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Reading E: Mixed
Chapter 23
10. The word “distinguishes” in the passage is closest in meaning to A
constitutes
B
confounds
C
underlies
D
differentiates
P5
Paragraph 5
S1–2
It is hypothesized that the fact that humans excel at imitation is in part what has allowed culture to accumulate. In fact, research has shown that human children often imitate too closely; they often imitate moves that are unnecessary in achieving a goal.
3–5
A Why do they do this? There is research suggesting that human children imitate not only to
reproduce desired effects (such as finding a treat hidden inside a box), but also for social reasons: they copy other humans to be more “like them.” The human propensity for conformity, for identifying with others through similar behavior, is what gives rise to fads and trends. 6
B It is also a driver of in-group and out-of-group identification, a feature of human behavior across cultures.
7
C In this way, over-imitation is a human trait that helps drive cultural transmission over
generations—a characteristic of the human species that separates it from other primates. End
23
D
Look at the part of the passage that is displayed above. The letters [A], [B], [C], and [D] indicate where the following sentence could be added. 11. These unneeded maneuvers make the whole behavior less efficient. A
Choice A
B
Choice B
C
Choice C
D
Choice D
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Chapter 23
Reading E: Mixed
Select from the six statements below TWO that characterize emulation only, TWO that characterize imitation only, and ONE that characterizes BOTH forms of behavior, according to the passage. One of the statements will NOT be used. This question is worth 2 points.
Emulation only
Imitation only
•
•
•
•
Both •1 meter (3.3 feet)
12. A Baby chimpanzees are better at this behavior than human children.
23
B
This behavior is a form of observational learning.
C
This behavior focuses more on reaching goals than on reproducing specific actions observed.
D
Human children perform this behavior more broadly than chimpanzees do.
E
In humans, this behavior can be motivated by social considerations.
F
This behavior subsides once sexual maturity is reached.
23.7 The Flying Fox
1m
ete
r (3
.3
fee
t)
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Reading E: Mixed
Chapter 23
The grey-headed fruit bat, also known as the flying fox, is one of the largest bats in Australia, with a wingspan of 1 meter (about 3.3 feet). Called a fox because of the red collar of fur around its neck and the fur that extends the length of its body, it does not resemble other, smaller species of bats elsewhere in the world. It does not echolocate (that is, locate nearby objects using reflected echoes of its high-pitched screeches), but instead navigates by sight, and accordingly, it has relatively large eyes for a bat. It can be found along the eastern coast of the continent, including in several urban areas. The bats spend much of their time hanging from trees, and they dwell in colonies or “camps,” groups that range in size from hundreds to tens of thousands. The flying fox is most visible at dusk, when it emerges in search of food: specifically, the nectar and pollen of gum trees, as well as fruit. It is especially fond of eucalyptus. These bats often fly long distances in search of food—in some cases as far as 50 kilometers (about 31 miles). Because of their declining population, as well as their role in the maintenance of a healthy ecosystem that relies on their dispersal of the seeds of native trees and the pollination of flowers, flying foxes are designated a “vulnerable species” by the International Union for Conservation of Nature’s (IUCN) Red List of Threatened Species. Furthermore, they are now protected under federal law in Australia, and in the state of New South Wales, it is illegal to destroy protected flying fox roost sites. Over a century ago, they existed in the millions, but estimates now place them at only about 600,000. Notably, the flying fox is the only mammal that consumes both nectar and fruit and resides in Australian subtropical rain forests, rendering it essential to the ecological balance of these forests. The clearing away of flying fox habitats for development is one cause of their population decline. In addition to the loss of foraging habitat, threats to the flying fox include extreme heat waves, natural predators such as eagles and crocodiles, and human beings who perceive the bats as a nuisance or threat. Recently, in the New South Wales town of Bateman’s Bay, thousands of flying foxes descended into the trees and clotheslines, leading the town to call a state of emergency and commit 2.5 million Australian dollars (about 1.8 million United States dollars) toward scattering the bats. It was then reported that some residents were unable to leave their homes because of the congestion caused by the bats. Because they are a protected species, however, officials were forced to use nonlethal means of making the bats leave. The officials resorted to smoke and noise to drive the bats away. They also responded by cutting down trees inhabited by the bats, an approach that animal rights advocates criticized as unnecessary. Clearing trees is thought to have played a strong role in the decline of the flying fox population over the last century.
23
There are also other reasons why people have viewed the bats negatively. For instance, the bats were recently discovered to carry a handful of viruses, and although only one has been shown to be directly transmissible to humans, the discovery of these viruses has contributed to the perception that flying foxes are dangerous. They are occasionally killed purposefully as a result of this perception, despite the legal protection flying foxes receive. Another situation in which humans perceive flying foxes as threats is in regions of cultivated crops, such as orchards. Though the bats reputedly only feast on such crops when faced with a scarcity of native, wild food sources, people living in such places have sought to destroy their roosts.
45
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Chapter 23
Reading E: Mixed
Now answer the questions.
P1
23
Paragraph 1
S1
The grey-headed fruit bat, also known as the flying fox, is one of the largest bats in Australia, with a wingspan of 1 meter (about 3.3 feet).
2
Called a fox because of the red collar of fur around its neck and the fur that extends the length of its body, it does not resemble other, smaller species of bats elsewhere in the world.
3
It does not echolocate (that is, locate nearby objects using reflected echoes of its high-pitched screeches), but instead navigates by sight, and accordingly, it has relatively large eyes for a bat.
4
It can be found along the eastern coast of the continent, including in several urban areas.
5
The bats spend much of their time hanging from trees, and they dwell in colonies or “camps,” groups that range in size from hundreds to tens of thousands.
6
The flying fox is most visible at dusk, when it emerges in search of food: specifically, the nectar and pollen of gum trees, as well as fruit.
7
It is especially fond of eucalyptus.
8
These bats often fly long distances in search of food—in some cases as far as 50 kilometers (about 31 miles).
1. The word “urban” in the passage is closest in meaning to A
rural
B
metropolitan
C
residential
D
outlying
2. According to paragraph 1, which of the following is NOT true of the flying fox? A
It has a wingspan larger than that of any other bat.
B
It will fly long distances to find food.
C
It dwells on the eastern coast of Australia.
D
It navigates by sight rather than by sound.
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Reading E: Mixed
Chapter 23
P2
Paragraph 2
S1
Because of their declining population, as well as their role in the maintenance of a healthy ecosystem that relies on their dispersal of the seeds of native trees and the pollination of flowers, flying foxes are designated a “vulnerable species” by the International Union for Conservation of Nature’s (IUCN) Red List of Threatened Species.
2
Furthermore, they are now protected under federal law in Australia, and in the state of New South Wales, it is illegal to destroy protected flying fox roost sites.
3
Over a century ago, they existed in the millions, but estimates now place them at only about 600,000.
4
Notably, the flying fox is the only mammal that consumes both nectar and fruit and resides in Australian subtropical rain forests, rendering it essential to the ecological balance of these forests.
3. According to paragraph 2, in which of the following locations is it illegal to destroy the roost of a flying fox? A
Along the western coast of Australia
B
In internationally conserved parts of Australia
C
Throughout all of Australia
D
In New South Wales, Australia
4. Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 2 about the flying fox’s consumption of nectar and fruit in Australian subtropical rain forests? A
It is typical behavior for mammals in these forests.
B
It is the only way that flying foxes acquire nutrition.
C
It is critical for seed distribution and flower pollination in these forests.
D
It makes the flying fox vital to the ecosystems of subtropics across the globe.
23
5. The word “dispersal” in the passages is closest in meaning to A
planting
B
scattering
C
germinating
D
swallowing
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Chapter 23
23
Reading E: Mixed
P3
Paragraph 3
S1
The clearing away of flying fox habitats for development is one cause of their population decline.
2
In addition to the loss of foraging habitat, threats to the flying fox include extreme heat waves, natural predators such as eagles and crocodiles, and human beings who perceive the bats as a nuisance or threat.
3
Recently, in the New South Wales town of Bateman’s Bay, thousands of flying foxes descended into the trees and clotheslines, leading the town to call a state of emergency and commit 2.5 million Australian dollars (about 1.8 million United States dollars) toward scattering the bats.
4
It was then reported that some residents were unable to leave their homes because of the congestion caused by the bats.
5
Because they are a protected species, however, officials were forced to use nonlethal means of making the bats leave.
6
The officials resorted to smoke and noise to drive the bats away.
7
They also responded by cutting down trees inhabited by the bats, an approach that animal rights advocates criticized as unnecessary.
8
Clearing trees is thought to have played a strong role in the decline of the flying fox population over the last century.
6. According to paragraph 3, animal rights activists have taken issue with which of the following means of driving flying foxes away? A
Calling a state of emergency
B
Blowing smoke at the bats
C
Making noise near the bats
D
Cutting down inhabited trees
7. According to paragraph 3, which of the following is NOT described as a threat to the population of flying foxes in Australia? A
Clotheslines in smaller towns
B
Predators such as crocodiles
C
Humans who feel annoyed or menaced
D
Excessively high temperatures
8. The word “approach” in the passage is closest in meaning to A
advance
B
approximation
C
introduction
D
tactic
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Reading E: Mixed
Chapter 23
9. According to paragraph 3, why were officials obliged to use nonlethal methods to make the bats in Bateman’s Bay go away? A
As a species, the flying fox is protected.
B
Some inhabitants of the town could not leave their homes.
C
The bats occupied both trees and clotheslines.
D
Smoke and noise were ineffective in driving off the bats.
P4
Paragraph 4
S1
There are also other reasons why people have viewed the bats negatively.
2
For instance, the bats were recently discovered to carry a handful of viruses, and although only one has been shown to be directly transmissible to humans, the discovery of these viruses has contributed to the perception that flying foxes are dangerous.
3
They are occasionally killed purposefully as a result of this perception, despite the legal protection flying foxes receive.
4
Another situation in which humans perceive flying foxes as threats is in regions of cultivated crops, such as orchards.
5
Though the bats reputedly only feast on such crops when faced with a scarcity of native, wild food sources, people living in such places have sought to destroy their roosts.
23
10. In paragraph 4, why does the author state that only one virus has been shown to be directly transmissible to humans? A
To demonstrate that people can be entirely irrational in the face of perceived threats
B
To describe the danger of the bats as at least partly a matter of perception
C
To surface the hidden but deadly threat that flying foxes pose to humans who live nearby
D
To assert that the bats are only dangerous if a virus is directly transmissible
11. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in the passage? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information. A
Despite a lack of legal protection, flying foxes are rarely killed on purpose, because they are unlikely to be perceived as threatening.
B
The legal protection of flying foxes does little to protect them, since they are often viewed as threats and deliberately killed.
C
The reason that flying foxes are threatened and at times killed deliberately is the legal protection the bats receive.
D
Although protected, flying foxes are sometimes killed because of people’s misunderstanding.
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Chapter 23
Reading E: Mixed
12. The word “cultivated” in the passage is closest in meaning to A
refined
B
valued
C
nurtured
D
reaped
P3
Paragraph 3
S1
The clearing away of flying fox habitats for development is one cause of their population decline.
2
A In addition to the loss of foraging habitat, threats to the flying fox include extreme heat waves, natural predators such as eagles and crocodiles, and human beings who perceive the bats as a nuisance or threat.
3–4
B Recently, in the New South Wales town of Bateman’s Bay, thousands of flying foxes descended into the trees and clotheslines, leading the town to call a state of emergency and commit 2.5 million Australian dollars (about 1.8 million United States dollars) toward scattering the bats. It was then reported that some residents were unable to leave their homes because of the congestion caused by the bats.
5–7
C Because they are a protected species, however, officials were forced to use nonlethal means of making the bats leave. The officials resorted to smoke and noise to drive the bats away. They also responded by cutting down trees inhabited by the bats, an approach that animal rights advocates criticized as unnecessary.
23 8
D Clearing trees is thought to have played a strong role in the decline of the flying fox
population over the last century.
Look at the part of the passage that is displayed above. The letters [A], [B], [C], and [D] indicate where the following sentence could be added. 13. In fact, the infestation was so severe that a number of local businesses were forced to close over the course of several days. A
Choice A
B
Choice B
C
Choice C
D
Choice D
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Reading E: Mixed
Chapter 23
An introductory sentence for a brief summary of the passage is provided below. Complete the summary by selecting the THREE answer choices that express the most important ideas in the passage. Some sentences do not belong in the summary because they express ideas that are not presented in the passage or are minor ideas in the passage. This question is worth 2 points.
14. A strikingly large bat that lives in Australia, the flying fox is currently threatened. A
The flying fox plays a crucial role in maintaining the ecological balance of some subtropical ecosystems.
B
Of all Australian bats, the flying fox has the largest wingspan, and it also has unusually large eyes.
C
A major reason for the bat’s declining population is habitat destruction, including that caused by humans perceiving a threat.
D
The flying fox feeds on both nectar and fruit and is known to travel long distances in search of food.
E
Organizations at multiple levels of government, including internationally, have taken action to protect the flying fox.
F
Among bats, the flying fox is especially dangerous since it carries viruses that are transmissible to humans.
23
23.8 Iodine Deficiency The human body requires regular intake of certain “micronutrients” to develop and function properly. The body needs fairly small quantities of these vitamins and minerals, yet their absence can lead to serious disease. Scurvy, for example, which is caused by lack of vitamin C, was once common among sailors. Bringing citrus fruits to eat on long voyages proved to be an effective cure. While our ability to prevent micronutrient deficiencies has greatly increased over the past two centuries, these diseases continue to cause problems in isolated or impoverished areas. Iodine deficiency has been a public health problem throughout human history. Lack of iodine in the diet can cause goiter (the swelling of the thyroid gland) and hypothyroidism (low production of thyroid hormone), which lead to fatigue, depression, and weight gain. Iodine deficiency is also a principal cause of preventable mental handicaps. Children who consume a low-iodine diet may suffer from stunted growth, loss of hearing, or difficulty standing and walking; they may also experience an intelligence quotient, or IQ, reduction of 10 to 15 points. Descriptions of diseases caused by iodine deficiency occur in ancient Chinese, Roman, and Egyptian texts. The ancient Chinese even successfully treated goiter by consuming seaweed, which is high in iodine. However, the connection between these diseases and lack of iodine was not made until the nineteenth century. Iodine was discovered accidentally in 1811 by a French chemist named Bernard Courtois. While making sodium salts, he observed a purple vapor rising from seaweed ash. Other scientists continued to study this substance, which was officially identified and named in 1813. Soon after, a Swiss doctor noted that administering iodine to patients with a goiter reduced the swelling of the thyroid. By the 1850s, scientists
51
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Chapter 23
Reading E: Mixed
hypothesized that iodine deficiency was associated with thyroid disorders. This theory was confirmed at the end of the century, when iodine was discovered within the thyroid gland. Prior to these discoveries, iodine deficiency was common in remote, mountainous areas, such as rural Switzerland, the Appalachian Mountains, and the Pacific Northwest. As early as 1830, nutritional scientists suggested that adding iodine to table salt could help to prevent iodine deficiency in these areas. Salt was chosen because it does not spoil and is consumed by most people in relatively predictable amounts. Still, iodized salt was not widely distributed in the United States and Europe until the 1920s. Today, over 90 percent of households in the United States have access to iodized salt, and iodine deficiency is relatively rare in most affluent nations. However, iodine deficiency remains a global problem, affecting nearly 200 million people each year. Incidence of severe iodine deficiency is actually on the rise. In 2013, 2,700 people died from iodine deficiency—an increase from 2,100 in 2010. While iodine deficiency has long been a problem in the developing world, reduction in salt intake and changes in the processing of milk products have also led to decreases in iodine consumption in more developed countries like Australia and New Zealand. Iodine deficiency is a particularly serious problem for pregnant women, because it can have adverse effects on the development of the fetus. Since the mid-1980s, the World Health Organization, in partnership with UNICEF and other organizations, has led the fight against iodine deficiency—primarily by promoting the use of iodized salt. However, excessive consumption of iodine can also lead to health problems (in particular, hyperthyroidism, or the overproduction of thyroid hormone).
23
In mild cases of iodine deficiency, consumption of small amounts of iodine can be an effective remedy. However, in more severe cases, iodine consumption can actually cause hyperthyroidism. For this reason, prevention, rather than treatment, is the emphasis of most programs designed to combat iodine deficiency. While there is still work to be done, progress made in the past century leaves many optimistic that, in the near future, diseases caused by iodine deficiency will join polio and smallpox on the list of maladies that are virtually extinct. Now answer the questions.
P1
Paragraph 1
S1
The human body requires regular intake of certain “micronutrients” to develop and function properly.
2
The body needs fairly small quantities of these vitamins and minerals, yet their absence can lead to serious disease.
3
Scurvy, for example, which is caused by lack of vitamin C, was once common among sailors.
4
Bringing citrus fruits to eat on long voyages proved to be an effective cure.
5
While our ability to prevent micronutrient deficiencies has greatly increased over the past two centuries, these diseases continue to cause problems in isolated or impoverished areas.
52
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Reading E: Mixed
Chapter 23
1. The word “isolated” in the passage is closest in meaning to A
poor
B
remote
C
vast
D
central
2. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that impoverished communities A
are always isolated
B
may lack access to micronutrients
C
have caused the spread of micronutrient deficiencies around the globe
D
have a relatively low incidence of scurvy
P2
Paragraph 2
S1
Iodine deficiency has been a public health problem throughout human history.
2
Lack of iodine in the diet can cause goiter (the swelling of the thyroid gland) and hypothyroidism (low production of thyroid hormone), which lead to fatigue, depression, and weight gain.
3
Iodine deficiency is also a principal cause of preventable mental handicaps.
4
Children who consume a low-iodine diet may suffer from stunted growth, loss of hearing, or difficulty standing and walking; they may also experience an intelligence quotient, or IQ, reduction of 10 to 15 points.
5
Descriptions of diseases caused by iodine deficiency occur in ancient Chinese, Roman, and Egyptian texts.
6
The ancient Chinese even successfully treated goiter by consuming seaweed, which is high in iodine.
7
However, the connection between these diseases and lack of iodine was not made until the nineteenth century.
23
3. The word “principal” in the passage is closest in meaning to A
original
B
known
C
chief
D
common
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Chapter 23
Reading E: Mixed
4. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in the passage? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information. A
People who consume more iodine from childhood through adulthood tend to perform better on tests of mental acuity.
B
Deafness in children, as well as other physical and neurological damage, is primarily caused by iodine deficiency.
C
Some aspects of mental capacity can be measured using an intelligence quotient, or IQ, test.
D
Not eating enough iodine as a child can have a negative impact on physical and mental health.
5. All of the following are mentioned in paragraph 2 as symptoms of iodine deficiency EXCEPT: A
swollen limbs
B
partial or complete deafness
C
excessive tiredness
D
increased weight
P3
23
Paragraph 3
S1
Iodine was discovered accidentally in 1811 by a French chemist named Bernard Courtois.
2
While making sodium salts, he observed a purple vapor rising from seaweed ash.
3
Other scientists continued to study this substance, which was officially identified and named in 1813.
4
Soon after, a Swiss doctor noted that administering iodine to patients with a goiter reduced the swelling of the thyroid.
5
By the 1850s, scientists hypothesized that iodine deficiency was associated with thyroid disorders.
6
This theory was confirmed at the end of the century, when iodine was discovered within the thyroid gland.
6. According to the passage, iodine was definitively linked to thyroid disorders when A
purple vapor was observed rising from burned seaweed
B
the thyroid gland was discovered to contain iodine
C
a Swiss doctor administered iodine to patients with goiters
D
the substance was officially identified and named
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Reading E: Mixed
Chapter 23
P4
Paragraph 4
S1
Prior to these discoveries, iodine deficiency was common in remote, mountainous areas, such as rural Switzerland, the Appalachian Mountains, and the Pacific Northwest.
2
As early as 1830, nutritional scientists suggested that adding iodine to table salt could help to prevent iodine deficiency in these areas.
3
Salt was chosen because it does not spoil and is consumed by most people in relatively predictable amounts.
4
Still, iodized salt was not widely distributed in the United States and Europe until the 1920s.
5
Today, over 90 percent of households in the United States have access to iodized salt, and iodine deficiency is relatively rare in most affluent nations.
7. Which of the following statements about people in the Appalachian Mountains can be inferred from paragraph 4 and earlier paragraphs? A
Their culture was similar to that of people living in the Swiss Alps.
B
Once they settled there, they had no contact with outside influences.
C
They may have suffered from a high incidence of goiter.
D
It is likely that they did not eat enough salt.
8. According to paragraph 4, what is one reason for choosing to add iodine to salt? A
Salt is chemically similar to iodine.
B
Salt is popular in remote and mountainous areas.
C
Naturally occurring salt contains enough iodine for health purposes.
D
People tend to eat fixed, known quantities of salt.
P5
23
Paragraph 5
S1
However, iodine deficiency remains a global problem, affecting nearly 200 million people each year.
2
Incidence of severe iodine deficiency is actually on the rise.
3
In 2013, 2,700 people died from iodine deficiency—an increase from 2,100 in 2010.
4
While iodine deficiency has long been a problem in the developing world, reduction in salt intake and changes in the processing of milk products have also led to decreases in iodine consumption in more developed countries like Australia and New Zealand.
5
Iodine deficiency is a particularly serious problem for pregnant women, because it can have adverse effects on the development of the fetus.
55
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Chapter 23
Reading E: Mixed
9. In paragraph 5, why does the author mention changes in the processing of milk products? A
To illustrate further the positive impact of iodized salt
B
To provide evidence for the decrease of iodine-related illness in developed countries
C
To highlight an unintended consequence of improved public health measures
D
To help explain the decline in the consumption of iodine in developed countries
10. The word “adverse” in the passage is closest in meaning to A
detrimental
B
permanent
C
pronounced
D
unforeseen
P6
23
Paragraph 6
S1
Since the mid-1980s, the World Health Organization, in partnership with UNICEF and other organizations, has led the fight against iodine deficiency—primarily by promoting the use of iodized salt.
2
However, excessive consumption of iodine can also lead to health problems (in particular, hyperthyroidism, or the overproduction of thyroid hormone).
11. Why is hyperthyroidism mentioned in paragraph 6? A
To point out a way in which ingesting too much iodine can be a problem
B
To reinforce the importance of combating iodine deficiency
C
To exemplify a problem the World Health Organization has successfully addressed
D
To argue against the use of iodized salt
P7
Paragraph 7
S1
In mild cases of iodine deficiency, consumption of small amounts of iodine can be an effective remedy.
2
However, in more severe cases, iodine consumption can actually cause hyperthyroidism.
3
For this reason, prevention, rather than treatment, is the emphasis of most programs designed to combat iodine deficiency.
4
While there is still work to be done, progress made in the past century leaves many optimistic that, in the near future, diseases caused by iodine deficiency will join polio and smallpox on the list of maladies that are virtually extinct.
56
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Reading E: Mixed
Chapter 23
12. What is the author’s primary purpose in paragraph 7? A
To demonstrate the severity of the iodine deficiency epidemic
B
To discuss the pros and cons of using iodized salt
C
To praise international groups for their efforts to combat iodine deficiency
D
To provide arguments for continuing to work to prevent iodine deficiency
P1 S1–2
Paragraph 1 The human body requires regular intake of certain “micronutrients” to develop and function properly. The body needs fairly small quantities of these vitamins and minerals, yet their absence can lead to serious disease.
3
A Scurvy, for example, which is caused by lack of vitamin C, was once common among sailors.
4
B Bringing citrus fruits to eat on long voyages proved to be an effective cure.
5
C While our ability to prevent micronutrient deficiencies has greatly increased over the past two centuries, these diseases continue to cause problems in isolated and impoverished areas.
End
D
Look at the part of the passage that is displayed above. The letters [A], [B], [C], and [D] indicate where the following sentence could be added.
23
13. Anemia, or lack of iron, is another common micronutrient deficiency. A
Choice A
B
Choice B
C
Choice C
D
Choice D
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Chapter 23
Reading E: Mixed
An introductory sentence for a brief summary of the passage is provided below. Complete the summary by selecting the THREE answer choices that express the most important ideas in the passage. Some sentences do not belong in the summary because they express ideas that are not presented in the passage or are minor ideas in the passage. This question is worth 2 points.
14. An example of an important micronutrient is iodine, the deficiency of which has long been a public health concern around the world.
23
A
In the early twentieth century, iodized salt was introduced as an effective way to combat iodine deficiency.
B
In 1811, iodine was discovered by a French chemist, who generated purple vapor by burning seaweed.
C
Iodine deficiency can lead to severe health problems, such as goiter, hypothyroidism, and developmental difficulties.
D
Hyperthyroidism, caused by overconsumption of iodine in the diet, results in the overproduction of thyroid hormone.
E
People tend to consume regular amounts of salt, a food ingredient that does not spoil.
F
With the focus of public health efforts on prevention, society is well on its way to eradicating iodine deficiency.
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Reading E: Mixed
Chapter 23
Answer Key—23.1 The Body and the Mind Question
Correct Answer
Right/Wrong
Category
1
A
Vocabulary
2
C
Fact
3
B
Vocabulary
4
C
Fact
5
D
Reference
6
B
Fact
7
A
Purpose
8
C
Negative Fact
9
D
Vocabulary
10
B
Simplify Sentence
11
D
Insert Text
12
Early Talking Cure: A, D. Later Talking Cure: B, C, F. Neither: E.
Table
23
Answer Key—23.2 The Spinning Jenny Question
Correct Answer
Right/Wrong
Category
1
C
Vocabulary
2
A
Fact
3
D
Fact
4
B
Vocabulary
5
B
Purpose
6
D
Inference
7
C
Vocabulary
8
A
Purpose
9
D
Simplify Sentence
10
A
Vocabulary
11
B
Negative Fact
12
C
Insert Text
13
Spinning Wheel: A, E. Spinning Jenny: C, D, F. Neither: B.
Table
59
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Chapter 23
Reading E: Mixed
Answer Key—23.3 Fracking and the Environment
23
Question
Correct Answer
Right/Wrong
Category
1
B
Vocabulary
2
D
Fact
3
A
Vocabulary
4
C
Purpose
5
B
Inference
6
D
Negative Fact
7
A
Vocabulary
8
C
Simplify Sentence
9
B
Vocabulary
10
B
Fact
11
A
Fact
12
C
Fact
13
D
Insert Text
14
B, C, F
Summary
Answer Key—23.4 Dien Bein Phu Question
Correct Answer
Right/Wrong
Category
1
D
Fact
2
B
Inference
3
C
Vocabulary
4
D
Vocabulary
5
A
Purpose
6
C
Purpose
7
A
Fact
8
A
Vocabulary
9
B
Inference
10
C
Vocabulary
11
C
Simplify Sentence
12
D
Negative Fact
13
D
Insert Text
14
C, D, E
Summary
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Reading E: Mixed
Chapter 23
Answer Key—23.5 Evidence of Global Warming Question
Correct Answer
Right/Wrong
Category
1
A
Negative Fact
2
B
Fact
3
C
Simplify Sentence
4
C
Vocabulary
5
D
Fact
6
B
Fact
7
B
Vocabulary
8
B
Purpose
9
A
Vocabulary
10
D
Inference
11
D
Vocabulary
12
A
Negative Fact
13
C
Insert Text
14
A, D, E
Summary
23
Answer Key—23.6 Chimpanzee Intelligence Question
Correct Answer
Right/Wrong
Category
1
B
Fact
2
B
Fact
3
D
Vocabulary
4
C
Reference
5
A
Vocabulary
6
C
Fact
7
C
Purpose
8
A
Negative Fact
9
B
Simplify Sentence
10
D
Vocabulary
11
A
Insert Text
12
Emulation: A, C. Imitation: D, E. Both: B. Neither: F.
Table
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Chapter 23
Reading E: Mixed
Answer Key—23.7 The Flying Fox
23
Question
Correct Answer
Right/Wrong
Category
1
B
Vocabulary
2
A
Negative Fact
3
D
Fact
4
C
Inference
5
B
Vocabulary
6
D
Fact
7
A
Negative Fact
8
D
Vocabulary
9
A
Fact
10
B
Purpose
11
D
Simplify Sentence
12
C
Vocabulary
13
C
Insert Text
14
A, C, E
Summary
Answer Key—23.8 Iodine Deficiency Question
Correct Answer
Right/Wrong
Category
1
B
Vocabulary
2
B
Inference
3
C
Vocabulary
4
D
Simplify Sentence
5
A
Negative Fact
6
B
Fact
7
C
Inference
8
D
Fact
9
D
Purpose
10
A
Vocabulary
11
A
Fact
12
D
Purpose
13
C
Insert Text
14
A, C, F
Summary
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Reading E: Mixed
Chapter 23
Answers and Explanations— 23.1 The Body and the Mind P1
Paragraph 1
Comments
S1
People around the world accept the idea that what a person experiences emotionally can impact that person physically.
People believe emotional experiences can have physical effects.
2
But why is it that this is such a commonly held belief?
Why?
3
In the Western world, this idea gained traction when it was adopted by Freud, a pioneer in the field of psychology in the early twentieth century.
Freud: psychology pioneer.
4
As one of the earliest exponents of the theory that emotional experiences can generate physical responses, Freud argued that some patients suffering from what appeared to be a severe physical illness could be treated for a psychological problem as a way to relieve their physical symptoms.
He argued that some physical illnesses could be treated psychologically.
1.
The word “exponents” in the passage is closest in meaning to
Vocabulary. “Exponent” = advocate, champion, explainer.
3
A
advocates
Correct. “The earliest exponents of the theory” = the earliest advocates or champions of the theory.
7
B
associates
Calling someone an “associate of the theory” is not idiomatic English. Even if it were, “associate” doesn’t convey the advocacy that “exponent” does.
7
C
adversaries
Opposite. “Adversary” = enemy.
7
D
acolytes
Not quite. “Acolyte” = follower, disciple, student. This lacks the idea of actively advocating for the theory.
23
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Chapter 23
Reading E: Mixed
P2
Paragraph 2
Comments
S1
To reach his conclusion, Freud drew on the work of nineteenthcentury French neurologist Jean-Martin Charcot.
Earlier: neurologist Charcot.
2
Charcot was researching a condition known at that time as “hysteria.”
“Hysteria.”
3
Drawn from the Greek word “hystera,” meaning “uterus,” hysteria was thought for centuries to be a medical condition experienced by women because of malfunctions of that organ.
Thought to be caused by malfunction of uterus.
4
One theory that can be traced all the way back to the Greek physician Hippocrates and that persisted in European medicine for centuries was the “wandering womb” theory.
“Wandering womb” theory.
5
This theory supposed that the condition of hysteria was due to the inappropriate movement of the uterus around the woman’s body.
6
Charcot, however, believed that the symptoms of hysteria were not the result of malfunctions of the uterus, but instead were caused by malfunctions of the nervous system, because the wide range of symptoms that characterize hysteria can impact all areas of the body.
23 2.
According to paragraph 2, what evidence supports Charcot’s theory that hysteria is a disease of the nervous system, rather than the uterus?
But Charcot believed hysteria’s symptoms came from nervous system.
Fact. S6 discusses Charcot’s theory and his evidence for that theory.
7
A
When it is malfunctioning, the human uterus can shift in position within the body.
This is the “wandering womb” theory (S4–5). Charcot did not support this theory (as shown by the “however” in S6).
7
B
Symptoms of hysteria are experienced by men as well as women.
The paragraph does not mention anything about men experiencing symptoms of hysteria.
3
C
Symptoms of hysteria affect all regions of the body.
Correct. S6 states that “the wide range of symptoms that characterize hysteria can impact all areas of the body.”
7
D
Other diseases of the uterus did not cause psychological symptoms.
No other diseases of the uterus are mentioned.
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Reading E: Mixed
3.
The word “inappropriate” in the passage is closest in meaning to
Chapter 23
Vocabulary. “Inappropriate” = unsuitable, improper, incorrect.
7
A
sudden
Unrelated. “Sudden” = done quickly or unexpectedly.
3
B
improper
Correct. “The condition of hysteria was due to the inappropriate movement of the uterus” = the condition was due to the improper movement of the uterus.
7
C
involuntary
Not quite. “Involuntary” = unintentional, spontaneous. This is not a synonym for “inappropriate.”
7
D
rhythmic
Unrelated. “Rhythmic” = occurring regularly or having a particular pattern.
P3
Paragraph 3
Comments
S1
Nevertheless, as he researched his hypothesis, Charcot changed his opinion.
But Charcot changed his mind.
2
He began treating patients using hypnosis.
Began using hypnosis.
3
In their state of hypnosis, Charcot was able to make suggestions that changed a patient’s physical state.
He could change a patient’s physical state.
4
This led him to conclude that their condition was not physical but psychological.
Conclusion: condition was psychological.
4.
What finding led to Charcot’s change in opinion regarding the root causes of his patients’ symptoms?
23
Fact. S4: “This led him to conclude that their condition was not physical but psychological.” What caused Charcot to change his mind (“This”) is in the previous sentence, S3.
7
A
Certain patients were more suggestible under hypnosis than others.
The passage never mentions this idea.
7
B
Not all patients were able to be hypnotized.
The passage never mentions this idea.
3
C
Suggestions made during hypnosis could alter the physical state of patients.
Correct. S3: “In their state of hypnosis, Charcot was able to make suggestions that changed a patient’s physical state.”
7
D
Physical manipulation of patients during hypnosis could lessen psychological symptoms.
This version reverses the correct direction of causality. Psychological actions led to physical effects, not the other way around.
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Chapter 23
Reading E: Mixed
P4
Paragraph 4
S1
Freud and his friend and collaborator Breuer accepted this conclusion and began to treat their own hysterical patients using hypnosis, observing that in a hypnotized state, some of their patients could reveal the underlying psychological source of their physical symptoms.
Freud and his colleague Breuer treated hysterical patients with hypnosis. Observed that some patients could reveal psychological source of symptoms.
2
One such patient was “Anna O.”
“Anna O.”
3
A patient of Breuer’s, Anna was invited to talk about her symptoms while under hypnosis.
4
During the course of those conversations, the severity of a symptom would be reduced as she was able to retrieve memories of traumatic events associated with the symptom’s onset.
Her symptoms lessened as she retrieved memories under hypnosis.
5
She would go on to dub this process the “talking cure.”
“Talking cure.”
5.
23
The word “their” in the passage refers to
Comments
REFERENCE. S1 contains the pronoun “their” in the phrase “their physical symptoms.” Whose physical symptoms are these, logically?
7
A
Freud and Breuer
An earlier use of “their” (with “patients”) does refer to Freud and Breuer, but not the highlighted “their.”
7
B
previous treatments
Treatments could not have physical symptoms.
7
C
physical symptoms
This “their” is in front of “physical symptoms,” so it modifies this noun, but it does not refer to it. “Their” is meant to indicate whose physical symptoms are being discussed.
3
D
some patients
Correct. S1 notes that “some of their (= Freud’s and Breuer’s) patients could reveal the underlying psychological source of their (= these patients’) physical symptoms.” The second “their” refers to the logical and grammatical subject of this clause: some of Freud’s and Breuer’s patients.
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Reading E: Mixed
6.
According to paragraph 4, Anna O.’s symptoms became less severe as she
Chapter 23
Fact. S2–3 introduce Anna O. and her treatment. S4 discusses how the severity of these symptoms was reduced.
7
A
observed and treated patients in a hypnotized state
Freud and Breuer did this observation and treatment, not Anna O.
3
B
discussed traumatic memories that she retrieved under hypnosis
Correct. S4 states that “the severity of a symptom would be reduced as she was able to retrieve memories of traumatic events associated with the symptom’s onset.”
7
C
concealed the underlying psychological source of her physical symptoms
According to S1–2, Anna O. was one of the patients who was able to reveal, not conceal, the underlying psychological source of her physical symptoms.
7
D
gave the nickname of the “talking cure” to the process
This happened at some later point in time, according to S5.
7.
The passage mentions Anna O. in order to 3
A
Purpose. S2 introduces the example of Anna O. as “one such patient.” That is, she is a patient who fits the description in S1.
illustrate how a patient can reveal underlying psychological causes of symptoms under hypnosis
Correct. S1–2: “Some of their (= Freud’s and Breuer’s) patients could reveal the underlying psychological source of their (= these patients’) physical symptoms. One such patient was ‘Anna O.’” So Anna O.’s example is meant to illustrate how those revelations happened.
7
B
draw a distinction between hysterical patients and patients with other psychological disorders
No such distinction is drawn in the passage.
7
c
express a similarity between Breuer’s patients and Freud’s
The passage never distinguishes Freud’s patients from Breuer’s or compares the two groups.
7
D
compare hysterical patients and patients seeking treatment for purely physical ailments
The passage does not discuss patients seeking treatment for purely physical ailments.
23
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Chapter 23
Reading E: Mixed
P5
Paragraph 5
S1
As Freud continued to develop the talking cure, he moved away from hypnosis and to a procedure he termed “free association,” through which patients were encouraged to speak in a totally uncensored and uninhibited way about whatever ideas or memories occurred to them in response to a given stimulus.
Further developments of the talking cure. Moved away from hypnosis to “free association.”
2
This process proved more laborious than working under hypnosis, leading Freud to surmise that there must be a force preventing the easy recall of the traumatic memories associated with his patients’ symptoms.
More difficult. So Freud thought: a force is preventing easy recall of traumatic memories.
3
From this idea, his theory of repression was born.
Theory of repression.
4
Repression, he believed, was the force that made traumatic memories so difficult for his patients to recall.
5
The memories were there—that much he knew from his work with patients—but they were so difficult to access that he did not feel as if they could be part of the patient’s conscious mind.
6
This feeling led him to the conclusion that there must be another part of the human mind in which those memories were amassed that is not fully conscious.
7
This subconscious region of the mind stores information that is repressed by the conscious mind.
23
Comments
Traumatic memories not in conscious mind.
Rather, in subconscious region.
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Reading E: Mixed
8.
Chapter 23
According to paragraph 5, all of the following contributed to Freud’s conclusion that there is a subconscious region of the human mind EXCEPT:
Negative Fact. S1 introduces Freud’s new method of free association. S2 indicates that this method was more laborious than hypnosis. As a result of this observation (and others described in the rest of the paragraph), Freud concluded that there is a subconscious region of the mind. Three answer choices will be supported in the paragraph. One will not be.
7
A
His patients had traumatic memories.
S5: “The memories were there—that much he knew from his work with patients.”
7
B
His patients’ traumatic memories were not easy to access via free association.
S2: “This process (= free association) proved more laborious than working under hypnosis.” S4 mentions that a force “made traumatic memories so difficult for his patients to recall.” S5 notes that “they (= the memories) were so difficult to access.”
3
C
His hypnotized patients were highly suggestible.
Correct. This fact is mentioned in an earlier paragraph, not in this one, and it is not cited in support of Freud’s theory of the subconscious mind.
7
D
He believed that humans repress traumatic memories.
S4: “Repression, he believed, was the force that made traumatic memories so difficult for his patients to recall.”
9.
The word “amassed” in the passage is closest in meaning to
Vocabulary. “Amass” = collect, gather, store (a large quantity of).
23
7
A
lost
Not quite. Although these memories were hard to retrieve, they were not lost in this region of the mind. “Lost” and “amassed” are not synonyms.
7
B
revived
Unrelated. “Revived” = to restore to consciousness or return to life.
7
C
treasured
Not quite. “Treasure” = cherish, keep or hold with appreciation. There is no sense of appreciation in “amass.”
3
D
housed
Correct. “Another part of the human mind in which those memories were amassed” = another part of the mind in which those memories were housed or collected.
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Chapter 23
Reading E: Mixed
P6
Paragraph 6
S1
According to Freud, repression happens when a wish, desire, or predilection does not align with the generally accepted moral system of the society in which an individual lives.
Repression happens when desire and morality don’t align.
2
Unable to make sense of the fact that the person has a desire for what he or she morally should not be craving, the mind takes the desire and buries it deep down in the subconscious region of the mind.
The mind buries the desire.
3
This repression of deviant desires is at the heart of all neuroses, according to Freud’s theory.
This repression is at the heart of all neuroses.
4
The widespread acceptance of this once revolutionary theory underpins the now commonplace belief that there is a link between emotional well-being and physical health.
This idea is now accepted widely. Supports belief of link between emotional and physical health.
10.
Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in paragraph 6? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.
23
Comments
Simplify Sentence. The first part of S2 states that the mind cannot make sense of the conflict between desire and morality. The second part describes the response of the mind, which is to bury the desire in the subconscious.
7
A
Because a person desires to make moral choices, immoral choices must be made in the subconscious.
The original does not claim that the subconscious is where immoral choices are made, only that the subconscious is where “immoral” desire is buried.
3
B
The mind pushes a desire into the subconscious if that desire cannot be reconciled with morality.
Correct. This version simplifies the original but captures its essence.
7
C
A person who is normally moral may subconsciously desire immoral things.
The original sentence does not make particular reference to anyone who is “normally moral.” The original refers more broadly to anyone who lives in a society with a moral system and who has an “immoral” wish.
7
D
People who are moral and know that they are moral do not consciously desire only moral things.
The original sentence does not refer in any specific way to people “who are moral and know that they are moral.”
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Reading E: Mixed
Chapter 23
P4
Paragraph 4
S1
Freud and his friend and collaborator Breuer accepted this conclusion and began to treat their own hysterical patients using hypnosis, observing that in a hypnotized state, some of their patients could reveal the underlying psychological source of their physical symptoms.
2
A One such patient was “Anna O.”
S1 mentions “physical symptoms.” But S1 does not discuss any reduction of these physical symptoms, as it should.
3
B A patient of Breuer’s, Anna was invited to talk
S2 does not discuss any reduction of a symptom.
about her symptoms while under hypnosis. 4
C During the course of those conversations, the
severity of a symptom would be reduced as she was able to retrieve memories of traumatic events associated with the symptom’s onset. 5
D She would go on to dub this process the “talking
cure.”
11.
Furthermore, the reduction of the symptom was not t emporary, but persisted long after the conversations with Breuer, effectively r elieving her of the symptom in full. 7
A
Choice A
7
B
Choice B
7
C
Choice C
3
D
Choice D
Comments
S3 mentions “symptoms” again, but not a reduction of those symptoms.
Correct. S4 indicates that “the severity of a symptom would be reduced.” The new sentence can now refer to this reduction of the symptom and extend the idea of S4 (noting that the reduction was not temporary).
Insert Text. The new sentence begins with “Furthermore,” indicating that the ideas in this sentence continue those in the previous sentence. The subject of the new sentence is “the reduction of the symptom.” The use of “the” reveals that this concept must have already been discussed, most likely in the sentence immediately before the insertion.
23
Correct.
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Chapter 23
Reading E: Mixed
Whole Passage
Comments
P1
People around the world accept the idea that what a person experiences emotionally can impact that person physically ...
People believe emotional experiences can have physical effects. Why? Freud: psychology pioneer. He argued that some physical illnesses could be treated psychologically.
P2
To reach his conclusion, Freud drew on the work of nineteenth-century French neurologist Jean-Martin Charcot ...
Earlier: neurologist Charcot. “Hysteria.” Thought to be caused by malfunction of uterus. “Wandering womb” theory. But Charcot believed hysteria’s symptoms came from nervous system.
P3
Nevertheless, as he researched his hypothesis, Charcot changed his opinion ...
But Charcot changed his mind. Began using hypnosis. He could change the patient’s physical state. Conclusion: condition was psychological.
P4
Freud and his friend and collaborator Breuer accepted this conclusion and began to treat their own hysterical patients using hypnosis ...
Freud and his colleague Breuer treated hysterical patients with hypnosis. Observed that some patients could reveal psychological source of symptoms. “Anna O.” Her symptoms lessened as she retrieved memories under hypnosis. “Talking cure.”
P5
As Freud continued to develop the talking cure, he moved away from hypnosis and to a procedure he termed “free association,” through which patients were encouraged to speak in a totally uncensored and uninhibited way ...
Further developments of the talking cure. Moved away from hypnosis to “free association.” More difficult. So Freud thought: a force is preventing easy recall of traumatic memories. Theory of repression. Traumatic memories not in conscious mind. Rather, in subconscious region.
P6
According to Freud, repression happens when a wish, desire, or predilection does not align with the generally accepted moral system of the society in which an individual lives ...
Repression happens when desire and morality don’t align. The mind buries the desire. This repression is at the heart of all neuroses. This idea is now accepted widely. Supports belief of link between emotional and physical health.
23
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Reading E: Mixed
12. Select from the six phrases below TWO that correctly characterize the early version of the talking cure and THREE that correctly characterize the later version of the talking cure, as d escribed in the passage. One of the phrases will NOT be used.
Chapter 23
Table. P4 describes the first, early version of the talking cure. P5 describes the later version (“As Freud continued to develop the talking cure …”).
A
The patient is under hypnosis.
Early talking cure. P4 S1: Freud and Breuer “began to treat their own hysterical patients using hypnosis.”
B
The process is more laborious.
Later talking cure. P5 S2: “This process proved more laborious than working under hypnosis.”
C
The patient is not under hypnosis.
Later talking cure. P5 S1: “As Freud continued to develop the talking cure, he moved away from hypnosis.”
D
The patient is prompted to talk about his or her symptoms.
Early talking cure. P4 S3: “Anna was invited to talk about her symptoms while under hypnosis.”
E
The process can be performed successfully by non-professionals.
Neither. Nothing in the passage supports the contention that either the early or the later talking cure could be carried out by non-professionals.
F
The patient is encouraged to respond uninhibitedly to a stimulus.
Later talking cure. P5 S1: “As Freud continued to develop the talking cure, he moved … to a procedure he termed ‘free association,’ through which patients were encouraged to speak in a totally uncensored and uninhibited way about whatever ideas or memories occurred to them in response to a given stimulus.”
23
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Chapter 23
Reading E: Mixed
Answers and Explanations—23.2 The Spinning Jenny P1
Paragraph 1
S1
Two well-known icons of the Industrial Revolution are the steam engine, originally invented in Britain by Thomas Savery and Thomas Newcomen in 1712 (later perfected by James Watt), and the cotton gin, patented by Eli Whitney in 1794 in the United States.
2
Both innovations were crucial in propelling the Industrial Revolution forward.
3
The steam engine was the first independent source of power that was not reliant on wind or moving water, such as a river, and the cotton gin drastically sped up the laborious process of separating cotton fibers from cotton seeds as a raw material for making cloth.
How each worked.
4
Both innovations led to dramatic improvements in the productivity of workers, enabling machines to replace the effort in important manufacturing tasks that had previously depended on human or animal power.
Both improved productivity dramatically.
5
However, a much lesser-known invention arrived in between these two, one that may have been just as crucial in paving the way for the rapid economic growth that followed over the next century: the spinning jenny.
But a lesser-known invention may have been just as important: the spinning jenny.
23
1.
The word “laborious” in the passage is closest in meaning to
Comments Steam engine and cotton gin = 2 icons of Industrial Revolution.
Vocabulary. “Laborious” = difficult, requiring much effort.
7
A
sophisticated
Not quite the same. “Sophisticated” = complex, advanced. This is not a synonym for “laborious,” which could involve quite simple but heavy burdens.
7
B
impossible
Too extreme. “Impossible” is sometimes used in a non-literal way to mean “difficult.” But in academic text, the word should be understood with its dictionary meaning: not possible at all.
3
C
arduous
Correct. “The laborious process of separating cotton fibers from cotton seeds” = the arduous, difficult process of separating cotton fibers from cotton seeds.
7
D
repetitive
Also not quite the same. The process in question seems in fact to have been repetitive (= involving a lot of repetition, the same steps over and over again). But some repetitive tasks are not laborious, and some laborious tasks are not repetitive.
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Reading E: Mixed
2.
According to paragraph 1, which of the following was true of both the steam engine and the cotton gin?
Chapter 23
Fact. S2 mentions that “both innovations were crucial in propelling the Industrial Revolution forward.” S4 then discusses a result of both the steam engine and the cotton gin.
3
A
Both inventions increased worker productivity.
Correct. S4: “Both innovations led to dramatic improvements in the productivity of workers.”
7
B
Both inventions were in fact created before the Industrial Revolution.
S2: “Both innovations were crucial in propelling the Industrial Revolution forward.” The dates of the inventions are given, but not the dates of the Industrial Revolution. It is possible that the inventions took place before the Industrial Revolution. But this is not stated in the passage.
7
C
Both machines were invented in the United States.
S1 states that the steam engine was “originally invented in Britain by Thomas Savery and Thomas Newcomen.”
7
D
Both inventions led to the development of the spinning jenny.
S5 explicitly mentions that the spinning jenny was invented before the cotton gin. Furthermore, no evidence is given that the steam engine helped in the development of the spinning jenny in any way.
3.
According to paragraph 1, which of the following was true of the human and animal power referred to in the paragraph?
Fact. S4 is the sentence that mentions human and animal power. It discusses how both the steam engine and the cotton gin increased worker productivity by enabling machines to replace that human and animal power in performing manufacturing tasks.
23
7
A
It was still used to provide small amounts of energy to the steam engine and the cotton gin.
There is no direct mention in the paragraph of how the steam engine and the cotton gin were powered.
7
B
Manufacturing depended on it more after the steam engine and the cotton gin were invented.
S4 states that the cotton gin and the steam engine enabled machines “to replace the effort … that had previously depended on human or animal power.” So, if anything, human and animal power became less necessary.
7
C
As a natural source, it was itself reliant on power from wind or moving water.
S3 states that the steam engine helped manufacturers become less reliant on power from wind and moving water. This sort of power had nothing to do with human and animal power, at least in the paragraph written.
3
D
It started to be replaced by machines after the invention of the steam engine and the cotton gin.
Correct. S4 explicitly states that both machines led to increased productivity, “enabling machines to replace the effort … that had previously depended on human or animal power.”
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Chapter 23
23
Reading E: Mixed
P2
Paragraph 2
S1
At the time, spinning wheels were used to turn cotton fibers into yarn and other threads for use in making cloth.
Spinning wheels turned fibers into yarn.
2
The operator turned the wheel, which in turn spun components of the machine called the flyer and spindle.
Operator turned wheel. Wheel turned flyer and spindle.
3
The flyer was responsible for “spinning” the fibers, that is, for twisting the raw fibers at an appropriate rate to produce thread.
Flyer spun fibers into thread.
4
Placed horizontally, the spindle was responsible for collecting the finished thread, with the flyer next to it.
Spindle collected thread.
5
According to a popular myth, in 1764, James Hargreaves (1720–1778) was in his workshop and observed that a spinning wheel had been knocked over by his daughter, Jenny, but was still spinning, along with the spindle, which now pointed vertically.
Popular myth about accidental invention (named for daughter).
6
It dawned on him that it would be possible to place multiple spindles vertically, each with its own flyer, and have the entire assembly powered by a single wheel operated by one person.
Idea to place multiple spindles with 1 wheel.
4.
The word “assembly” in the passage is closest in meaning to
Comments
Vocabulary. In this context, “assembly” = a machine assembled out of different parts.
7
A
association
In the context of a gathering of people, “assembly” and “association” can mean similar things. That is not the case with machine parts.
3
B
machine
Correct. “It would be possible to … have the entire assembly powered by a single wheel” = it would be possible to have the entire machine (assembled from various parts) powered by a single wheel.
7
C
component
The author intends for “assembly” to refer to the whole machine, not just a component of the machine.
7
D
supply
“Supply” = a quantity of things for use. But “supply” lacks the idea of assembling those things into a coherent whole.
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Reading E: Mixed
5.
Why does the author use the phrase “According to a popular myth” in the paragraph?
Chapter 23
Purpose. S5 begins with the phrase “According to a popular myth.” This phrase introduces a story about how James Hargreaves came up with the idea for the spinning jenny. This story is discredited by inference later in the passage, in P3. However, you can already deduce from the use of the word “myth” that the story is untrue.
7
A
To explain why the story about how Hargreaves invented the spinning jenny is so popular
The words “popular myth” assert that the story is popular (and untrue). But they do not explain why the story is popular.
3
B
To introduce a tale about the invention of the spinning jenny that is interesting but not true
Correct. The word “myth” implies “legend” or “fiction,” meaning that the story about to be told is untrue.
7
C
To make a transition from the circumstances of the spinning jenny’s invention to its method of operation
If anything, nearly the opposite is true. S1–4 describe the spinning wheel (which preceded the spinning jenny). S5 presents a story about how the spinning jenny was invented.
7
D
To echo back to a previously told story that outlines how the spinning jenny was actually invented
The phrase introduces a new story. It does not refer back to a previously told story.
23
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Chapter 23
6.
23
Reading E: Mixed
It can be inferred from paragraph 2 that an important difference between the spinning jenny and the spinning wheel was that
Inference. S1–4 discuss the construction and operation of a spinning wheel, the predecessor to the spinning jenny. S5 tells a fictitious story about how the spinning jenny was invented (inspired by a living person named Jenny). S6 discusses how a spinning jenny was constructed and how it was different from its predecessor.
7
A
the spinning jenny could produce any type of thread, while the spinning wheel could only be used to turn cotton into yarn
The paragraph does not claim that the spinning jenny could produce types of thread that the spinning wheel could not produce.
7
B
the spinning jenny made use of a different and less costly source of power than the spinning wheel did
S2 and S6 make it clear that both machines were powered by a single operator spinning a single wheel. This source of power was more efficiently deployed with the spinning jenny, but it was not fundamentally “different.”
7
C
the spinning jenny required several operators, whereas the spinning wheel needed just one operator
S6: The “entire assembly” (= the spinning jenny) could be “powered by a single wheel operated by one person.”
3
D
the spinning jenny could fill many spindles at once, while the spinning wheel could fill only one at a time
Correct. S1 states that “spinning wheels were used to turn cotton fibers into yarn and other threads.” S2–4 describe how the machines worked, in particular how the (single) spindle collected the thread produced by the spinning wheel. S6: “It dawned on him that it would be possible to place multiple spindles vertically, each with its own flyer.” You can infer that the spinning jenny (the new assembly Hargreaves envisioned) could fill multiple spindles at one time.
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Reading E: Mixed
P3
Paragraph 3
Chapter 23
Comments
S1
In reality, Hargreaves had several daughters, none of whom was named Jenny.
2
(It is believed that Hargreaves may have intended “jenny” as a nickname for “engine.”)
3
However, with his insight about repositioning the spindle and adding more of them, the spinning jenny was born.
4
His initial creation consisted of eight vertical spindles all connected to a single wheel via a metal frame.
5
Thus, the original spinning jenny could produce thread at up to eight times the rate of a single-thread spinning wheel with the same amount of manpower.
With 8 spindles, up to 8 times the rate.
6
It is one of the earliest known examples of a mechanical advantage, or the advantage gained by the use of a device when transmitting force.
Mechanical advantage.
7
Mechanical advantage is an extremely important concept that drove the explosive increase in economic output that occurred during the Industrial Revolution across practically every industry.
Drove big increases in output during Industrial Revolution in lots of industries.
8
The textile industry was one of the first to experience such a growth in productivity, and the spinning jenny was the invention responsible for it.
9
In fact, many inventions in other industries that created mechanical advantage used the spinning jenny as a model or inspiration in their design.
7.
The word “repositioning” in the passage is closest in meaning to
No daughter was named Jenny!
But the spinning jenny was born.
23 In fact, inventions in other industries sometimes copied the spinning jenny.
Vocabulary. “Reposition” = adjust the position, location, or orientation of something.
7
A
removing
“Remove” and “reposition” are not synonyms at all. “Remove” = take away, get rid of. “Reposition” does not imply any removal.
7
B
implementing
“Implementing” something is to put it into use or use it as a tool.
3
C
rearranging
Correct. “His insight about repositioning the spindle” = his insight about rearranging the spindle, adjusting its position.
7
D
warehousing
“Repository” = warehouse, storage facility. “Reposition” is unrelated.
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Chapter 23
8.
23
Reading E: Mixed
Which of the following best describes the organization of paragraph 2?
Purpose. S1–2 explain that the previous story (from P2) had to be a myth and indicate where the actual name may have come from. S3–6 describe the enhancements made by Hargreaves and how they improve productivity. S7–9 discuss how the spinning jenny and its concept of mechanical advantage contributed to broad economic advancement.
3
A
A correction of a previous story, followed by an explanation of an invention and its implications
Correct. S1–2 amend the story about Hargreaves’s fictional daughter named Jenny. S3–6 give a detailed explanation of the spinning jenny and its advantages. S7–9 discuss the implications for economic advancement as a whole during the Industrial Revolution.
7
B
A confirmation of a previous story, followed by detailed examples about that story
S1–2 negate rather than confirm the previous story. The rest of the paragraph is devoted to the spinning jenny and its economic implications, not examples about the previous story.
7
C
An opinion about a previous story, followed by a detailed explanation of an economic concept
S1–2 are not phrased as opinions, but rather as facts, including a hypothesis about the actual source of the name “spinning jenny.” Furthermore, while S6–9 do discuss an economic concept, this choice omits the detailed explanation of how the spinning jenny captured the economic concept of mechanical advantage.
7
D
A denial of a previous story, followed by a series of examples showing why that story must be incorrect
S1–2 do deny the previous story about the invention of the spinning jenny. But the rest of this choice is incorrect. The remainder of the paragraph moves away from that previous story entirely and instead discusses the spinning jenny and its economic implications.
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Reading E: Mixed
Chapter 23
P4
Paragraph 4
Comments
S1
Not surprisingly, there was substantial opposition to Hargreaves’s invention.
Opposition to the invention.
2
Of course, textile makers welcomed an invention that would make more thread available for them to use as a raw material in the production of cloth.
Of course, textile makers welcomed it.
3
At first, other hand weavers also welcomed the possibility of machine that would make their work more productive—there had been a shortage in the capacity for thread spinning for quite some time.
At first, so did other weavers.
4
However, once Hargreaves began selling his invention within the industry, spinning capacity proliferated, and the price of spun yarn fell drastically.
But as the invention spread, price of yarn fell drastically.
5
Weavers who did not have access to Hargreaves’s device, or who could not afford it, were quickly priced out of the market.
Some weavers were priced out of the market (= they could not make yarn profitably).
6
Many revolted, going so far as to repeatedly break into his property and destroy newly manufactured machines whenever he had assembled them for sale.
Some even destroyed his machines.
7
Hargreaves was forced to flee to Nottingham, about 100 miles away, and construct his machines in secrecy.
8
He also faced competition from imitation versions of his invention, so he applied for and received a patent for the spinning jenny in 1770.
Hargreaves also faced imitations.
9
Unfortunately for Hargreaves, because he had sold a number of such machines prior to receiving patent protection, his legal recourse against imitations was limited.
But he had sold before getting a patent.
23
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Chapter 23
9.
23
Reading E: Mixed
Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in paragraph 4? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.
Simplify Sentence. The first part of S9 explains that Hargreaves had sold some of his machines before he sought patent protection. The second part of S9 explains that as a result, he had fewer options legally to protect himself and his invention from imitation versions of the machine that others were presumably using or selling.
7
A
Hargreaves did not have patent protection, but did not need it because imitation machines were illegal.
The fact that imitation machines were not illegal was exactly why Hargreaves needed patent protection.
7
B
Hargreaves’s legal recourse was reduced because imitation machines already had their own patents.
Hargreaves was attempting to get his own patent in order to have legal recourse. No information was provided regarding potential patents on imitation machines.
7
C
The patent protection that Hargreaves received reduced his legal options for creating new inventions.
The patent protection would have increased his legal options for going after so-called copycat machines, but it had nothing to do with creating new inventions.
3
D
Hargreaves’s legal options against copycat machines were reduced because he sold some machines before getting patent protection.
Correct. This version says essentially the same thing as S9, but transposes the two essential parts of the sentence and simplifies the language somewhat.
10.
The word “proliferated” in the passage is closest in meaning to
Vocabulary. “Proliferate” = increase rapidly in amount or number, flourish, multiply.
3
A
blossomed
Correct. “Spinning capacity proliferated” = it blossomed, it spread rapidly.
7
B
fluctuated
“Fluctuate” = swing up and down, rise and fall, vary.
7
C
plunged
Opposite. “Plunged” means to jump or dive into something with great energy.
7
D
dispersed
Not quite. “Disperse” = scatter, spread out. But “disperse” strongly implies that the same amount is spread out. Whatever is dispersed is thinned out and much less concentrated. When a crowd disperses, it loses force. In contrast, “proliferate” means both “spread out” and “increase dramatically in quantity and effect.”
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Reading E: Mixed
11.
According to paragraph 4, all of the following occurred as a result of Hargreaves selling his invention EXCEPT:
Chapter 23
Negative Fact. The whole paragraph discusses the results of the sale of Hargreaves’ invention. Three of the answer choices will be cited in the paragraph. One will not be.
7
A
The price of spun yarn plummeted.
S4 states that “the price of spun yarn fell drastically.”
3
B
Textile makers resisted the new method of thread manufacturing.
Correct. S2: “Of course, textile makers welcomed an invention that would make more thread available for them to use as a raw material in the production of cloth.”
7
C
The capacity to manufacture thread became greater.
S4 mentions that “spinning capacity proliferated.”
7
D
Some competitors revolted by demolishing his property.
S6: “Many revolted, going so far as to repeatedly break into his property and destroy newly manufactured machines.”
23
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Chapter 23
Reading E: Mixed
P2
Paragraph 2
S1
At the time, spinning wheels were used to turn cotton fibers into yarn and other threads for use in making cloth.
2–3
A The operator turned the wheel, which in turn spun
components of the machine called the flyer and spindle. The flyer was responsible for “spinning” the fibers, that is, for twisting the raw fibers at an appropriate rate to produce thread. 4
B Placed horizontally, the spindle was responsible for collecting
the finished thread, with the flyer next to it.
5
C According to a popular myth, in 1764, James Hargreaves
(1720–1778) was in his workshop and observed that a spinning wheel had been knocked over by his daughter, Jenny, but was still spinning, along with the spindle, which now pointed vertically.
23
6
D It dawned on him that it would be possible to place multiple
spindles vertically, each with its own flyer, and have the entire assembly powered by a single wheel operated by one person.
12.
In the middle of the e ighteenth century, a man in Northern England realized this design could be improved. 7
A
Choice A
7
B
Choice B
3
C
Choice C
7
D
Choice D
Comments
Placement here would be confusing. It would suggest that the description starting in S2 relates to the new design, not the old design. Placement here would suggest that placing the spindle horizontally was a part of the design improvement. But S4 is still part of the old design. Correct. The new sentence refers to the original design described above with “this design.” The new sentence also transitions well to the story about James Hargreaves (who is “the man in Northern England”) and his improvement described in the rest of the paragraph. The moment of transition has passed. S5 is already discussing the specific story of the new design’s birth. The sentence to be inserted is general and should come before S5. Moreover, the link to the old design (“this design”) is lost.
Insert Text. The new sentence refers to “this design” and the idea that it could be improved. So the prior text should refer to the old design, and the following text should refer to the new and improved design. The inserted sentence functions as an excellent transition from the old spinning wheel to the new spinning jenny.
Correct.
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Reading E: Mixed
Whole Passage
Chapter 23
Comments
P1
Two well-known icons of the Industrial Revolution are the steam engine, originally invented in Britain by Thomas Savery and Thomas Newcomen in 1712 (later perfected by James Watt), and the cotton gin, patented by Eli Whitney in 1794 in the United States ...
Steam engine and cotton gin = 2 icons of Industrial Revolution. How each worked. Both improved productivity dramatically. But a lesser-known invention may have been just as important: the spinning jenny.
P2
At the time, spinning wheels were used to turn cotton fibers into yarn and other threads for use in making cloth ...
Spinning wheels turned fibers into yarn. Operator turned wheel. Wheel turned flyer and spindle. Flyer spun fibers into thread. Spindle collected thread. Popular myth about accidental invention (named for daughter). Idea to place multiple spindles with 1 wheel.
P3
In reality, Hargreaves had several daughters, none of whom was named Jenny ...
No daughter was named Jenny! But the spinning jenny was born. With 8 spindles, up to 8 times the rate. Mechanical advantage. Drove big increases in output during Industrial Revolution in lots of industries. In fact, inventions in other industries sometimes copied the spinning jenny.
P4
Not surprisingly, there was substantial opposition to Hargreaves’s invention ...
23
Opposition to the invention. Of course, textile makers welcomed it. At first, so did other weavers. But as the invention spread, price of yarn fell drastically. Some weavers were priced out of the market (= they could not make yarn profitably). Some even destroyed his machines. Hargreaves also faced imitations. But he had sold before getting a patent.
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Chapter 23
Reading E: Mixed
13. Select from the six phrases below THREE that correctly characterize the spinning jenny and TWO that correctly characterize the spinning wheel, according to the passage. One of the phrases will NOT be used.
23
Table. “Characterize” = portray, describe, be an example of. Correct answers do not have to convey any single “main idea” of either machine. They simply have to be accurate descriptions of one or the other. The first part of P2 describes the old spinning wheel. The second part of P2 and much of P3 describe the new spinning jenny.
A
Used a single horizontal spindle
Spinning wheel. Described in S4 in P2.
B
Used a single vertical spindle
Neither. Only the mythical wheel that “Jenny” supposedly knocked over had a single vertical spindle.
C
Used multiple spindles
Spinning jenny. Directly mentioned in S6 in P2 and again in S3 in P3.
D
Invented by James Hargreaves
Spinning jenny. Implied strongly in the second half of P2 (S5–6) and the first part of P3 (S2–4).
E
Used by many weavers at the beginning of the 1700s
Spinning wheel. Implied strongly by several facts: Hargreaves based his invention on the spinning wheel (second half of P2). As noted in P2 S5, his idea came in 1764. His invention was a big improvement on the spinning wheel, which priced many weavers out of the market (middle of P4).
F
Inspired development of similar machines in other industries
Spinning jenny. Directly mentioned in S9 in P3.
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Reading E: Mixed
Chapter 23
Answers and Explanations— 23.3 Fracking and the Environment P1
Paragraph 1
S1
The 2010 documentary film Gasland features a man in Colorado lighting the water from his home faucet on fire.
Documentary: man lights tap water on fire.
2
The water is flammable because of methane, also known as natural gas, apparently released into his groundwater source from hydraulic fracturing in his area.
Methane apparently in the water from hydraulic fracturing.
3
According to some researchers, this phenomenon has become common in several parts of the United States.
Has become common in parts of the US, according to some.
1.
The word “flammable” in the passage is closest in meaning to
Comments
Vocabulary. “Flammable” = able to be set on fire.
7
A
potable
“Potable” = drinkable.
3
B
incendiary
Correct. “The water is flammable because of methane” = the water is incendiary (= likely to catch fire) because of methane.
7
C
poisonous
The water may be poisonous to some degree. But “poisonous” does not capture the meaning of “flammable.”
7
D
incombustible
Opposite. “Incombustible” = not able to be combusted or set on fire.
2.
According to paragraph 1, which of the following is true regarding groundwater contamination that may be caused by hydraulic fracturing?
23
Fact. S2 states the apparent reason why the man’s tap water is flammable. S3 notes that some researchers note that this phenomenon has been occurring in other areas of the United States as well.
7
A
It is not the only problem potentially caused by hydraulic fracturing.
P1 only discusses one problem that may be caused by hydraulic fracturing: groundwater contamination.
7
B
It is causing methane to leak into hydraulic fracturing sites.
S2: “The water is flammable because of methane … apparently released into his groundwater source from hydraulic fracturing in his area.” The methane is supposedly leaking from hydraulic fracturing sites, not into them.
7
C
It is caused by sources originating from outside the United States.
P1 does not provide any evidence that potential sources of the groundwater contamination are coming from outside the United States.
3
D
It seems to be happening in locations other than the one mentioned.
Correct. S3: “According to some researchers, this phenomenon has become common in several parts of the United States.” Therefore, the phenomenon is apparently happening in locations other than the one discussed in the paragraph.
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Chapter 23
Reading E: Mixed
P2
23
Paragraph 2
Comments
S1
What exactly is hydraulic fracturing, also known as “fracking,” and why has it become commonplace?
What is “fracking”? Why so common now?
2
Fracking is a drilling procedure designed to extract hard-to-reach resources from below the land’s surface.
Drilling for hard-to-reach resources.
3
In particular, fracking has become the default procedure for unearthing natural gas deposits that are embedded in openings within large shale rock formations.
Default for natural gas within shale.
4
The process is as follows: first, a traditional well, similar to that used to reach petroleum, is drilled to a specified depth.
Details of procedure.
5
Then the well takes a 90-degree turn, so that it is now running horizontal, or parallel to the surface.
6
Once the wellbore has been drilled a sufficient distance, it is then flooded with a liquid mixture known as “fracking fluid.”
7
This fluid is pumped into the wellbore at a tremendously high pressure, which causes the shale rock to split apart, freeing the natural gas and other resources trapped within the rock formation.
High-pressure fluid splits rock, frees natural gas.
8
These resources can then be much more easily taken out from the ground.
Easy to take out.
9
Since the 1950s, over 1 million fracking procedures at roughly 100,000 fracking wells have been completed in the United States.
Over 1 million “frackings” have been done in the US.
3.
The word “unearthing” in the passage is closest in meaning to
Vocabulary. “Unearth” = dig up, remove, get something hidden from under the ground.
3
A
extracting
Correct. “Fracking has become the default procedure for unearthing natural gas deposits” = it has become the default procedure for extracting (taking out or pulling out) these deposits.
7
B
cleansing
Unrelated. Digging up natural gas deposits is not the same as cleaning them.
7
C
identifying
Unrelated. Digging up natural gas deposits is not the same as identifying or even finding them.
7
D
implanting
Nearly opposite. To “implant” would be to put into the ground rather than to extract.
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Reading E: Mixed
4.
Why does the author use the phrases “drilled to a specified depth” and “drilled a sufficient distance”?
Chapter 23
Purpose. S4 mentions that a fracking well, at first, is drilled similarly to a traditional well, up to a “specified depth.” S5 implies that this first part of a fracking well is vertical, because it later “takes a 90-degree turn, so that is now running horizontal.” The first highlighted phrase describes how deep, vertically, the well must be drilled. The second highlighted phrase describes how far it must be drilled horizontally (“a sufficient distance” in S6).
7
A
To emphasize the fundamental difference between depth and distance
The focus of S4 is the first step of the drilling process: the vertical portion of the well. The focus of S5–6 is the second step: the well turns horizontal and is drilled a further distance. These phrases describe the two stages of the drilling process. But the purpose of the highlighted phrases is not to contrast depth and distance, but rather to describe the two key steps in drilling a fracking well.
7
B
To suggest that some fracking wells are drilled deeply while others are drilled to more shallow depth
It seems that the “specified depth” may vary for different wells. But that point is not made in the passage. From the text, you might in fact reasonably infer that the “specified depth” is the same for all fracking wells. Moreover, S4–6 explain that all fracking wells are two-step processes, featuring both vertical and horizontal drilling. This choice ignores the second phrase.
3
C
To describe the lengths of the vertical and horizontal portions of the wellbore
Correct. S4 describes the vertical portion of the fracking well drilling process, which goes down to a “specified depth.” S5–6 describe the horizontal portion, which goes “a sufficient distance.”
7
D
To demonstrate that depth and distance are equivalent in the context of fracking wells
Depth is measured in units of distance. But S4–5 are describing two separate steps in the process, one vertical and the other horizontal. Furthermore, depth is only equivalent to distance if that distance is vertical. Horizontal distance, for example, has zero depth.
23
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Chapter 23
5.
23
Reading E: Mixed
Paragraph 2 suggests which of the following about fracking in the United States?
Inference. All of P2 is devoted to describing the fracking process. But only S9 mentions the United States.
7
A
The United States is the first country to extract natural gas via fracking.
Nothing in P2 suggests that the United States is the first country to use fracking.
3
B
More than one fracking procedure can be performed at a single well.
Correct. S9 mentions “over 1 million fracking procedures at roughly 100,000 fracking wells,” so the number of procedures completed is roughly 10 times as large as the number of wells. For this to be true, a single well must be capable of allowing multiple fracking procedures.
7
C
The process used in the Unites States is different from that used in many other countries.
Nothing in P2 suggests that the fracking process used in the United States is different from that used in any other country.
7
D
The process used in the United States has changed substantially since the 1950s.
S9 mentions total fracking statistics since the 1950s. But the sentence does not mention any change in the fracking process since then.
P3
Paragraph 3
Comments
S1
Natural gas has become an attractive fuel resource because it is abundant in the Marcellus shale formation, found across much of Pennsylvania and Ohio and parts of neighboring states, as well as in several other formations in Kansas, Colorado, Oklahoma, and Texas.
Natural gas is attractive because it is abundant.
2
Additionally, natural gas is considered a “clean-burning” fuel, because it releases much less carbon dioxide, nitric oxide, and sulfur oxide than other fuel sources (particularly coal) when it is burned.
Also “clean-burning.”
3
Fracking represents the most efficient conventional method to access this fuel source.
Fracking = most efficient conventional way to get.
4
However, fracking creates numerous environmental problems by the very nature of the means used to extract the natural gas.
But many environmental problems.
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Reading E: Mixed
6.
According to paragraph 3, which is the following is NOT a reason why fracking has become a common practice?
Chapter 23
Negative Fact. S1–3 list reasons supporting the widespread use of fracking. The three incorrect answer choices will be included in that part of the paragraph. The correct answer will not be included there. S4 lists a problem with fracking, which is not a reason why fracking has become common.
7
A
It is a highly efficient method for retrieving natural gas.
S3: “Fracking represents the most efficient conventional method to access this fuel source.”
7
B
The natural gas extracted by fracking releases less in the way of pollutants than many other fuels do.
S2 states that “natural gas is considered a ‘clean-burning’ fuel, because it releases much less carbon dioxide, nitric oxide, and sulfur oxide than other fuel sources (particularly coal) when it is burned.” The term “clean-burning” suggests that carbon dioxide, nitric oxide, and sulfur oxide can be considered “pollutants” (= things that pollute).
7
C
Natural gas is found abundantly in many states, such as Pennsylvania.
S1 notes that natural gas is “abundant in the Marcellus shale formation, found across much of Pennsylvania.” S3 explains why fracking is used to extract natural gas (it is “the most efficient conventional method”). So the abundance of natural gas helps explain why fracking has become common.
3
D
It has few side effects that can affect the environment in a detrimental way.
Correct. This is not a reason for the increased use of fracking because the opposite is true. S4 states that “fracking creates numerous environmental problems.”
7.
The word “conventional” in the passage is closest in meaning to
23
Vocabulary. “Conventional” = standard, normal.
3
A
established
Correct. “Fracking represents the most efficient conventional method” = it represents the most efficient method that is established or customary.
7
B
pioneering
Opposite. “Pioneering” = involving new ideas or methods.
7
C
reliable
Not quite. “Reliable” = dependable, trustworthy. But something conventional might not be reliable, and vice versa.
7
D
experimental
Also opposite. “Experimental” = based on untested techniques or ideas, not yet established.
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Chapter 23
P4
Reading E: Mixed
Paragraph 4
Comments
S1
First, fracking fluid itself is anything but safe.
2
It primarily consists of water, with a proprietary series of additives for various purposes needed for the fracking process.
3
Additives include hundreds of toxic substances such as solvents, surfactants, biocides, friction reducers, and so on.
4
The exact mix used in any given operation can vary based on several factors, and companies are not legally required to publish an exact list of chemicals used.
5
For any fracking operation, a substantial amount of this fluid must be employed.
6
A fracking site will require 2 to 10 million gallons (about 8 to 38 million liters) of fluid; this fluid must be brought to the site by tanker trucks, which typically have a capacity of about 5,000 gallons (19,000 liters).
7
This is in addition to the equipment and pumping trucks that the site will require.
8
Thus, thousands of tanker truck trips may be required to complete a given well.
9
When the fluid is pumped into the ground, an attempt is made to contain and recover it, but some fracking fluid does seep into the rock sediment, and this seepage can contaminate nearby groundwater sources.
Some seeps into the rock and can contaminate groundwater.
10
The recovered fluid, known in the industry as “wastewater,” must be contained above ground and disposed of properly.
Recovered fluid is waste, requires proper disposal.
11
This task is nontrivial, given the sheer volume of fluid required, and little government oversight is applied to ensure that fracking companies follow safe practices.
Big task, little government oversight.
23
Fracking fluid is not safe.
Some ingredients are toxic.
Must use a lot of fluid.
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Reading E: Mixed
8.
Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in paragraph 4? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.
Chapter 23
Simplify Sentence. The first part of S9 states that an attempt is made to recover and contain fracking water when it is pumped into the ground. The second part of the sentence states that some of the fluid can seep into the ground anyway, and that this seepage may contaminate nearby groundwater.
7
A
Attempts to collect fracking fluid are typically able to contain everything that was pumped into the ground.
The highlighted sentence indicates the opposite, that not all fluid is recovered.
7
B
Fracking fluid that seeps into the rock sediment can contaminate groundwater.
This is true but is missing the essential information about the attempt to collect the fluid.
3
C
When attempts to collect fracking fluid pumped into the ground are not entirely successful, fluid that escapes can contaminate groundwater.
Correct. This choice says essentially the same thing as S9 in P4, with no changes to the underlying logic.
7
D
Fracking fluid is pumped into the rock sediment, causing groundwater contamination and requiring collection.
S9 indicates that fracking fluid is pumped into the ground and then might seep into the rock sediment when not collected. The order and connection of information in this choice is incorrect.
9.
The word “nontrivial” in the passage is closest in meaning to
23
Vocabulary. “Nontrivial” = significant, extensive, not trivial or unimportant.
7
A
impractical
Too extreme. “Impractical” = impossible, unreasonable, not workable. Nontrivial tasks do not have to be impractical.
3
B
significant
Correct. “This task is nontrivial” = this task is significant.
7
C
negligible
Opposite. “Negligible” = small or unimportant, not worth considering.
7
D
costly
Too specific. The task may be nontrivial or significant because it is very costly. But it could be for other reasons.
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Chapter 23
Reading E: Mixed
10.
According to paragraph 4, which of the following is true of the fluid used for a fracking operation? 7
A
The precise mixtures of chemicals in fracking fluid are publicly known.
S4 notes that “companies are not legally required to publish an exact list of chemicals used.”
3
B
Millions of gallons of fluid are typically used for a single fracking site.
Correct. S6: “A fracking site will require 2 to 10 million gallons … of fluid.”
7
C
Government oversight helps ensure proper wastewater disposal.
S11 states that “little government oversight is applied to ensure that fracking companies follow safe practices.” These practices are in relation to the disposal of wastewater discussed in S10–11.
7
D
Most of the recovered fluid can be reused in other fracking operations.
The paragraph does not assert or suggest that fracking water can be reused. In fact, the term “wastewater” implies the contrary. If the used fluid is considered “waste,” you probably can’t use it again.
P5
23
Fact. Virtually all of P4 is devoted to fracking fluid, so the answer could be anywhere in the paragraph.
Paragraph 5
Comments
S1
Wastewater is not the only potential source of environmental complications from fracking.
2
There is strong evidence to suggest that fracking can cause earthquakes.
Strong evidence: fracking can cause earthquakes.
3
Research claims that more than half of the earthquakes in Texas in the last 40 years have been triggered by oil and gas drilling activity, with the preponderance coming from hydraulic fracturing.
More than half of earthquakes in Texas in last 40 years triggered by fracking.
4
The pace of growth in earthquakes is even more staggering in recent years, as fracking has mushroomed in several parts of the United States.
Growing elsewhere in US with fracking.
5
According to the United States Geological Survey, during the period 1973–2008, there were approximately 20 measurable earthquakes in the central and eastern United States per year.
6
In 2014, there were more than 600, and in 2015, over 1,000.
7
While most of these earthquakes were minor, with no structural damage to any buildings, the occurrence has become so common that the phrase “injection-induced seismicity” has been coined to describe it.
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Reading E: Mixed
11.
According to paragraph 5, the concept of “injection-induced seismicity” is best described as
Chapter 23
Fact. “Injection-induced seismicity” is introduced in S7 at the end of the paragraph. But the whole paragraph is about earthquakes caused by fracking.
3
A
earthquake activity in some locations caused by fracking operations
Correct. S7: “While most of these earthquakes were minor, with no structural damage to any buildings, the occurrence has become so common that the phrase ‘injection-induced seismicity’ has been coined to describe it.” The “occurrence” in question is the frequent occurrence of earthquakes caused by fracking. The term itself reveals its meaning. “Injectioninduced” = induced or caused by injections (of fracking fluid). “Seismicity” = seismic activity = earthquake activity.
7
B
mechanisms by which earthquakes trigger hydraulic fracturing
Hydraulic fracturing triggers earthquakes, not the other way around.
7
C
increases in hydraulic fracturing as a proportion of all oil and gas drilling activity
Such a trend is not discussed anywhere in the passage.
7
D
the degree to which hydraulic fracturing makes individual earthquakes more severe
This paragraph clearly implicates hydraulic fracturing as a cause of the increased number of earthquakes. However, nothing indicates that individual earthquakes are more severe than before. In fact, S7 states that “most of these earthquakes were minor.”
23 12.
According to paragraph 5, which of the following is true of recent increases in the number of earthquakes in the United States?
Fact. Almost all of P5 is concerned with increasing earthquake activity caused, at least in part, by hydraulic fracturing.
7
A
The increases, high in the 1970s through the first decade of the 2000s, have been smaller more recently.
S5–6 note that “during the period 1973–2008, there were approximately 20 measurable earthquakes in the central and eastern United States per year. In 2014, there were more than 600, and in 2015, over 1,000.” That is, the increases are much larger in more recent years.
7
B
The increases are dramatic and can only be explained by hydraulic fracturing.
Too extreme. S3 states that “more than half of the earthquakes in Texas in the last 40 years have been triggered by oil and gas drilling activity, with the preponderance coming from hydraulic fracturing.” Although hydraulic fracturing is the likely cause of most of the increases, the passage doesn’t argue that all of the increases result from fracking.
3
C
A majority of the new earthquakes each year are relatively mild.
Correct. S7 states that “most of these earthquakes were minor, with no structural damage to any buildings.”
7
D
New developments may reduce the increases in fracking-related earthquakes.
Such developments are not discussed in the passage.
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Chapter 23
Reading E: Mixed
Paragraph 2
P2
Comments
S1
What exactly is hydraulic fracturing, also known as “fracking,” and why has it become commonplace?
2–4
A Fracking is a drilling procedure designed to extract hard-toreach resources from below the land surface. In particular, fracking has become the default procedure for unearthing natural gas deposits that are embedded in openings within large shale rock formations. The process is as follows: first, a traditional well, similar to that used to reach petroleum, is drilled to a specified depth.
The completed fracking procedure has not yet been discussed at all.
5–6
B Then the well takes a 90-degree turn, so that it is now running horizontal, or parallel to the surface. Once the wellbore has been drilled a sufficient distance, it is then flooded with a liquid mixture known as “fracking fluid.”
Placing the new sentence here interrupts the description of the fracking procedure, which continues in S5–8.
7–8
C This fluid is pumped into the wellbore at a tremendously high
Placing the new sentence here interrupts the description of the fracking procedure, which continues in S7–8.
pressure, which causes the shale rock to split apart, freeing the natural gas and other resources trapped within the rock formation. These resources can then be much more easily taken out from the ground. D Since the 1950s, over 1 million fracking procedures at
9
23
roughly 100,000 fracking wells have been completed in the United States.
13.
Once completed, the fracking procedure can be performed again on the same well to extract resources not reached the first time. 7
A
Choice A
7
B
Choice B
7
C
Choice C
3
D
Choice D
Correct. This placement allows “Once completed, the fracking procedure” to refer to the procedure described in S4–8. It also helps clarify the difference between the numbers presented in S9.
Insert Text. This sentence refers to the completed fracking procedure. Thus, it should come after all the steps in the procedure have been outlined. Moreover, the new sentence should flow into the next sentence properly. So the next sentence should elaborate on the point made in this sentence: that the fracking procedure can be repeated more than once on the same well.
Correct.
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Reading E: Mixed
Whole Passage
Chapter 23
Comments
P1
The 2010 documentary film Gasland features a man in Colorado lighting the water from his home faucet on fire ...
Documentary: man lights tap water on fire. Methane apparently in the water from hydraulic fracturing. Has become common in parts of the US, according to some.
P2
What exactly is hydraulic fracturing, also known as “fracking,” and why has it become commonplace? ...
What is “fracking”? Why so common now? Drilling for hard-to-reach resources. Default for natural gas within shale. Details of procedure. High-pressure fluid splits rock, frees natural gas. Easy to take out. Over a million frackings have been done in the US.
P3
Natural gas has become an attractive fuel resource because it is abundant in the Marcellus shale formation, found across much of Pennsylvania and Ohio and parts of neighboring states ...
Natural gas is attractive because it is abundant. Also “clean-burning.” Fracking = most efficient conventional way to get. But many environmental problems.
P4
First, fracking fluid itself is anything but safe ...
Fracking fluid is not safe. Some ingredients are toxic. Must use a lot of fluid. Some seeps into the rock and can contaminate groundwater. Recovered fluid is waste, requires proper disposal. Big task, little government oversight.
P5
Wastewater is not the only potential source of environmental complications from fracking ...
Strong evidence: fracking can cause earthquakes. More than half of earthquakes in Texas in last 40 years triggered by fracking. Growing elsewhere in US with fracking.
23
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Chapter 23
14.
Reading E: Mixed
Hydraulic fracturing is an important technique for e xtracting valuable fuel resources, but its environmental consequences seem to be serious.
Summary. Correct answers must be clearly expressed in the passage. They must also be among the major points of the passage. They should tie as directly as possible to the summary given.
7
A
Fracking first emerged in the 1950s as a widely used natural gas extraction procedure in the United States.
P2 alludes to this fact, but it is a relatively minor detail in this passage.
3
B
The fluid used in fracking is laden with toxic chemicals and is difficult to dispose of efficiently.
Correct. P4 focuses on this important environmental issue.
3
C
Fracking has become common because it efficiently extracts natural gas, a cleaner-burning and abundant fuel.
Correct. P3 discusses the advantages of natural gas. It also mentions that fracking is the most efficient conventional method to extract natural gas.
7
D
The bore of a fracking well is first drilled vertically to a specific depth, much in the same way as for petroleum wells.
This part of the fracking process is described in P2. But in the context of the whole passage, this detail is minor.
7
E
An advantage of fracking is that relatively little investment is required to set up and manage operations.
P4 describes the massive volume of resources required to initiate a fracking operation. It later describes at least one difficulty of managing the operation (namely, the challenge of wastewater disposal). It may be true that a fracking operation requires less investment than, say, extracting oil from under miles of ocean water. But no such comparison is made in the passage.
3
F
Fracking has been associated with a rapid increase in the number of earthquakes in the United States.
Correct. This is the focus of P5.
23
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Reading E: Mixed
Chapter 23
Answers and Explanations—23.4 Dien Bien Phu P1
Paragraph 1
Comments
S1
A watershed event in the twentieth-century saga that effectively ended Western colonialism was the defeat of the French army by the Viet Minh under General Giap at Dien Bien Phu in 1954.
20th-century watershed (= turning point): Viet Minh defeating French in 1954 at DBP.
2
This victory shocked the Western world, essentially won the First Indochina War for the Viet Minh, and encouraged similar revolutions, especially in French-controlled North Africa.
Shocked West (ended colonialism), won the war, encouraged similar revolutions.
3
To understand and appreciate the causes and results of this turning point, one must address several questions.
Several questions.
4
Strategically, how did the French miscalculate their strength and objective?
Strategy: how did French miscalculate?
5
Tactically, how was a modern army bested by irregular guerrilla forces?
Tactics: how did guerrillas win?
6
And how did one moderately-sized engagement disproportionately influence geopolitical developments worldwide?
And how did this one battle have such big effects?
23 1.
According to paragraph 1, which of the following is true about the Viet Minh victory at Dien Bien Phu?
Fact. S1 calls the Viet Minh victory a “watershed event.” S2 details the effects of the victory. The rest of the paragraph poses related questions.
7
A
It cost the French army more casualties than it did the Viet Minh guerrillas.
Casualties are not discussed in P1.
7
B
It was an outcome widely expected in the West.
S2: “This victory shocked the Western world.”
7
C
It ultimately turned into an expensive stalemate.
S2: “This victory … essentially won the First Indochina War for the Viet Minh.”
3
D
It inspired revolutions in North Africa.
Correct. S2: “This victory … encouraged similar revolutions, especially in French-controlled North Africa.”
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Chapter 23
P2
Reading E: Mixed
Paragraph 2
Comments
S1
When General Navarre took command of the French forces in 1953, the Viet Minh advance threatened not only the French position there, but also that in neighboring Laos.
Background to the battle. French needed to defend position in Vietnam and Laos, too.
2
Lacking the resources for a defensive front, Navarre hoped to cut the Viet Minh supply lines and defend Laos by establishing isolated fortresses, which were reliant on air supply.
French general wanted to establish isolated fortresses supplied by air.
3
This approach had produced a French victory at Na San in 1952.
Previous victory at Na San that way.
4
However, the French command overlooked many strategic differences when establishing their forces in Dien Bien Phu in November 1953.
But DBP different.
5
At Na San, the French enjoyed extensive air support, and their superior artillery commanded the high ground.
Na San had good air support and high ground.
6
In the valley of Dien Bien Phu, however, they chose positions that left the surrounding hills to the Viet Minh, and they did not have the same air support and supply capacities.
DBP didn’t.
7
Furthermore, faulty intelligence left the French unaware of the vast quantity of men and artillery that General Giap had been able to transport through difficult terrain.
Also, bad intelligence about Viet Minh forces.
8
On a broader strategic level, the entire operation was rendered pointless when the French government relieved Navarre of the responsibility of defending Laos a week before the campaign began, but he did not receive that directive until two weeks after the French dug in.
Plus, Navarre wound up not having to defend Laos.
9
These strategic errors paved the way for a tactical debacle.
These errors led to debacle.
23
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Reading E: Mixed
2.
It can be inferred from the discussion in paragraph 2 that the success of the French plan would require
Chapter 23
Inference. S2–6 discuss the French plan and indicate some of its flaws.
7
A
faulty intelligence
S7 states that the French intelligence (= knowledge about the enemy) was faulty. But having faulty intelligence was not part of their planning. If anything, the success of the plan depended on accurate intelligence, at least in part.
3
B
air and artillery superiority
Correct. S5 discusses the role that air and artillery superiority played at Na San, which was a victory (S3). S6 notes that the lack of this superiority at Dien Bien Phu was problematic.
7
C
a defensive front
S2 states that the French lacked the resources for a defensive front.
7
D
troops that were better trained
This paragraph does not mention the training of troops.
3.
The word “debacle” in the passage is closest in meaning to
Vocabulary. “Debacle” = sudden downfall, failure, fiasco.
7
A
impasse
“Impasse” = stalemate, a situation with no way forward. That’s not the same as a debacle.
7
B
triumph
Opposite. A “triumph” is a win.
3
C
disaster
Correct. “These strategic errors paved the way for a tactical debacle” = these errors paved the way for a tactical disaster.
7
D
reaction
A “reaction” or response is unrelated in meaning.
4.
The phrase “rendered pointless” is closest in meaning to
23
Vocabulary. “Render” = make, turn, cause something to be. “Pointless” = lacking a point or purpose. “Render pointless” = make something lack a purpose.
7
A
torn asunder
“Rend” = tear apart. “Render” is a different verb. “Asunder” = divided, so “torn asunder” would mean to tear or rip apart. This is not quite the same as making something useless.
7
B
turned awry
“Awry” = amiss or away from what was planned. A situation that “turns awry” does not go as planned.
7
C
made immoral
“Immoral” = not moral. Making something useless is not the same as making something no longer moral.
3
D
deprived of purpose
Correct. “The entire operation was rendered pointless” = it was deprived of purpose.
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Chapter 23
5.
Why does the author discuss Na San in the highlighted sentence?
Purpose. S4 indicates that Na San and Dien Bien Phu were different in important, strategic ways. The highlighted sentence (S5) lists advantages that the French had at Na San but did not have at Dien Bien Phu, according to S6.
3
A
To detail advantages that Dien Bien Phu lacked
Correct. S5 elaborates on S4, which asserts that Na San and Dien Bien Phu were different. S5 describes French advantages at Na San. S6 indicates that Dien Bien Phu lacked those advantages for the French.
7
B
To highlight the hopelessness of the French position at Dien Bien Phu
Too extreme. S5 only lists advantages that the French had in a different battle. This part of the paragraph does not suggest that the French position was hopeless at Dien Bien Phu.
7
C
To underscore the military prowess of General Giap
S5 does not focus on the strengths of the Viet Minh’s military leadership. The only part of the paragraph that might give a nod to those strengths is in S7, which notes that General Giap had been able to transport a lot of troops and artillery “through difficult terrain.”
7
D
To illustrate the importance of defending Laos
The need to defend Laos is mentioned as important in S1–2 and then removed in S8. Neither part of the paragraph is related to the tactical points discussed in S5.
P3
23
Reading E: Mixed
Paragraph 3
Comments
S1
The French troops at Dien Bien Phu numbered about 11,000, eventually rising to 16,000.
11,000 French troops, rises to 16,000.
2
By late December, the French position was surrounded and began to unravel; a nearby garrison of 2,100 at Lai Chau attempted to join the beleaguered defenders but lost 90 percent of its strength in ambushes along the way.
December: French position surrounded. Nearby garrison is almost wiped out.
3
General Giap deployed 50,000 fighters and dug his artillery into commanding hillside positions that were impervious to the French guns.
Giap: 50,000 troops. Artillery in commanding hillside positions.
4
The battle commenced in earnest in March 1954.
March: battle starts.
5
The French defense consisted of eight fortified positions.
6
The Viet Minh artillery decimated the French and killed two of the commanding officers.
7
Within a couple of days, the Viet Minh overran two of these strongholds, and the Vietnamese ethnic Tai troops manning a third deserted en masse.
In days, 3 of 8 French strongholds fall.
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Reading E: Mixed
6.
Why does the author mention that “a nearby garrison of 2,100 at Lai Chau attempted to join the beleaguered defenders but lost 90 percent of its strength in ambushes along the way”?
Chapter 23
Purpose. This part of S2 is connected to the previous part of S2 by a semicolon. So the two ideas should align. “Garrison” = troops or military unit.
7
A
To illustrate the bravery of the French soldiers
This part of S2 only describes the casualties suffered by these French troops. It does not indicate their conduct.
7
B
To decry the bloodshed of the war
This part of S2 only describes the losses of the French in one case. It takes no general stance on war itself.
3
C
To describe a way in which the French position fell apart
Correct. This part of S2 describes one way in which the French position “unraveled,” as stated in the previous part of S2.
7
D
To show how the French lost an opportunity to win the battle
Nothing in the passage suggests that the example given in this part of S2, the near-total loss of this nearby garrison, was decisive for the battle.
According to paragraph 3, for what immediate reason did the French-fortified position held by Tai troops fall?
Fact. S7 is the only place in the paragraph that discusses the Tai troops and the fall of the specific position that they held.
7.
3
A
The defending soldiers fled as a group.
Correct. S7: “The Vietnamese ethnic Tai troops manning a third deserted en masse.” To “desert” = to abandon or leave, and “en masse” = all together or in a group.
7
B
The Viet Minh artillery decimated the defending soldiers.
S6: “The Viet Minh artillery decimated the French.” Nothing is said about the artillery’s effect on the Tai troops. It is likely that the effect was grim, but that point is never made in the passage. The immediate cause of the fall of the third stronghold was desertion.
7
C
The defending soldiers were ambushed by Viet Minh troops.
S2 states that it was the garrison at Lai Chau was ambushed by Viet Minh troops, as it attempted to join the French defenders.
7
D
The commanding officers of the defending soldiers were killed.
S6: “The Viet Minh artillery decimated the French and killed two of the commanding officers.” It is likely that this also had a dispiriting effect on the Tai troops, but the passage never says so. The immediate cause of the fall of the third stronghold was desertion.
23
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Chapter 23
8.
Reading E: Mixed
The word “impervious” is closest in meaning to
Vocabulary. “Impervious” to something = unaffected by it, immune to it.
3
A
invulnerable
Correct. “Commanding hillside positions that were impervious to the French guns” = positions that were invulnerable to the French guns. “Invulnerable” = impossible to harm or damage.
7
B
inevitable
Unrelated. “Inevitable” = unable to be avoided.
7
C
intransigent
Not quite. “Intransigent” = unyielding, but only in the sense of a person’s opinions or attitudes (= stubborn, uncompromising, inflexible).
7
D
inadequate
Nearly opposite. “Inadequate” = insufficient or lacking in quality/quantity.
P4
Paragraph 4
S1
The French troops paid dearly for their generals’ miscalculations.
French paid dearly.
2
Their commanders underestimated the resourcefulness and military prowess of General Giap; their artillery was helpless; and the Viet Minh advance made the airstrip inoperative, leaving the French dependent on inadequate supply by parachute.
Underestimated General Giap. Helpless artillery. Inoperative airstrip.
3
After a two-week lull, vicious seesawing warfare continued from late March into early April.
Vicious warfare into April.
4
The desperate French inflicted heavy casualties on the Viet Minh but still steadily lost ground until even parachute resupply was impossible.
French inflicted casualties but lost ground.
5
Throughout April, the Viet Minh tightened their grip.
6
In early May, a series of assaults overran the remaining French positions and, despite a breakout attempt, virtually all of the defenders were killed or captured.
May: Viet Minh assaults overran French.
7
The Viet Minh won a costly but decisive victory.
Viet Minh won.
23
Comments
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Reading E: Mixed
Chapter 23
Which of the following statements Inference. The entire paragraph discusses the events about the French defeat is supported leading up to the final defeat of the French forces. by the information in paragraph 4?
9.
7
A
Given the circumstances, the final outcome could not have been avoided.
Too extreme. S1–2 provide support for the inference that the final outcome (French defeat) was likely. But to say that the outcome could not have been avoided is to exclude every possibility of French victory. This claim is unwarranted.
3
B
Miscalculations by French commanders had dire results for their side.
Correct. S1: “The French troops paid dearly for their generals’ miscalculations.” This answer choice basically rephrases S1.
7
C
Despite its strategic importance, the Viet Minh victory was too costly.
Heavy casualties on the part of the Viet Minh are noted. S7 calls the victory “costly.” But the paragraph never suggests that the victory was too costly.
7
D
In view of the French army’s technology, the Viet Minh were surprised by their victory.
Viet Minh expectations and reactions are not discussed in P4.
10.
The word “seesawing” in the passage is closest in meaning to
Vocabulary. “Seesaw” (as a verb) = go or swing back and forth, alternate, fluctuate. In the passage, “seesawing” is used as an adjective to describe “warfare.” In other words, the attacks were going back and forth (from one side to the other).
7
A
brutish
The language “vicious seesawing” might make this choice tempting. A “brute” is a savagely violent, cruel, or vicious person. However, this is not directly related to the meaning of the highlighted word, “seesawing.”
7
B
intermittent
Not quite. “Intermittent” = off and on, erratic. This would mean that the warfare kept stopping and starting. But “seesawing” means that it went back and forth between the Viet Minh and the French. Sometimes it looked as if one side would win. At other times, it looked as if the other side would win.
3
C
back-and-forth
Correct. “Vicious seesawing warfare continued” = vicious back-and-forth warfare continued.
7
D
devastating
The “devastating” (highly destructive or damaging) outcomes discussed in this paragraph might make this choice tempting. However, this is not directly related to the meaning of the highlighted word, “seesawing.”
23
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Chapter 23
11.
23
Reading E: Mixed
Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in paragraph 4? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.
Simplify Sentence. S2 lists several detailed ways in which the French were at a serious disadvantage at this point in the battle. In the simplified version, some details will necessarily be left out, but the core meaning will remain.
7
A
The loss of the airstrip forced resupply by parachute and doomed the French.
The loss of the airstrip is only one of several factors mentioned in S2. Moreover, “doomed” is extreme, since it means that there was absolutely no way to avoid defeat. The original sentence does not make this claim.
7
B
Some degree of French blindness to the capabilities of the guerrillas led them to misjudge General Giap’s skill.
The French did misjudge General Giap’s skill and were to some degree blind to the capabilities of the Viet Minh guerrillas. However, this is only one specific factor in the list; it therefore omits too much information.
3
C
French handicaps included ineffective artillery and air supply, along with underestimation of their adversaries.
Correct. This version summarizes the French military shortcomings that are described in the original.
7
D
The failure of their artillery to dislodge the attackers contributed more than any other factor to the defeat of the French.
The original sentence does not rank the factors it lists.
P5
Paragraph 5
Comments
S1
The immediate result was to spur an agreement for French withdrawal and the division of Vietnam, with the Viet Minh controlling the northern half.
Immediate result: French withdrawal, division of Vietnam.
2
Consequently, a weakened France then faced other expensive and eventually futile conflicts with insurgents in its North African colonies.
French then faced other conflicts in North Africa.
3
In Vietnam, the southern leaders, backed by the United States, broke the terms of the peace, and conflict resumed.
Conflict resumed in Vietnam.
4
In many ways, the battle of Dien Bien Phu led to the Second Indochina War, known in the United States as the Vietnam War.
Vietnam War.
5
In that war, it has been argued that General Giap employed the same strategy in the assault on Khe Sanh, but vastly superior United States air power and weaponry resulted in a bloody defeat for the attackers, at least at first.
Khe Sanh: Giap tried similar approach, but it failed.
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Reading E: Mixed
12.
Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 5 as a result of the Viet Minh victory at Dien Bien Phu?
Chapter 23
Negative Fact. The entire paragraph discusses the results of the Viet Minh victory. Three answer choices will be referred to in P5. One will not.
7
A
United States military involvement in Vietnam
S3–5 describe the military involvement of the United States in Vietnam. S4: “In many ways, the battle of Dien Bien Phu led to the Second Indochina War, known in the United States as the Vietnam War.”
7
B
General Giap’s strategy at Khe Sanh
S5: “In that war, it has been argued that General Giap employed the same strategy in the assault on Khe Sanh.”
7
C
French conflicts with North African insurgents
S2 states that “France then faced other expensive and eventually futile conflicts with insurgents in its North African colonies.”
3
D
Anti-war protests in Paris and the United States
Correct. Such protests are not discussed in the paragraph.
P5
Paragraph 5
S1
The immediate result was to spur an agreement for French withdrawal and the division of Vietnam, with the Viet Minh controlling the northern half.
2
A Consequently, a weakened France then faced other expensive
and eventually futile conflicts with insurgents in its North African colonies.
Comments
S1 doesn’t mention General Giap or his initial miscalculation.
3–4
B In Vietnam, the southern leaders backed by the United States broke the terms of the peace, and conflict resumed. In many ways, the battle of Dien Bien Phu led to the Second Indochina War, known in the United States as the Vietnam War.
S2 still hasn’t mentioned anything required for the inserted sentence to make sense.
5
C In that war, it has been argued that General Giap employed
Even by S4, General Giap has still not been mentioned.
the same strategy in the assault on Khe Sanh, but vastly superior United States air power and weaponry resulted in a bloody defeat for the attackers, at least at first. End
D
23
Correct. S5 contains the proper anchor for the inserted sentence by describing General Giap’s initial miscalculation at Khe Sanh against his enemies, this time the United States.
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Chapter 23
13.
Reading E: Mixed
However, despite General Giap’s initial miscalculation, the military strength of his enemies did not ultimately prevail here either. 7
A
Choice A
7
B
Choice B
7
C
Choice C
3
D
Choice D
Insert Text. The previous sentence should contain “General Giap’s initial miscalculation,” so that it can be referred to in the inserted sentence. “Here” is another clue: the prior sentence should indicate where the miscalculation took place. “Either” indicates that this failure of a foreign army is parallel to the French failure at Dien Bien Phu.
Correct.
Whole Passage
23
Comments
P1
A watershed event in the twentieth-century saga that effectively ended Western colonialism was the defeat of the French army by the Viet Minh under General Giap at Dien Bien Phu in 1954 ...
20th-century watershed (= turning point): Viet Minh defeating French in 1954 at DBP. Shocked West (ended colonialism), won the war, encouraged similar revolutions. Several questions. Strategy: how did French miscalculate? Tactics: how did guerrillas win? And how did this one battle have such big effects?
P2
When General Navarre took command of the French forces in 1953, the Viet Minh advance threatened not only the French position there, but also that in neighboring Laos ...
Background to the battle. French needed to defend position in Vietnam and Laos, too. French general wanted to establish isolated fortresses supplied by air. Previous victory at Na San that way. But DBP different. Na San had good air support and high ground. DBP didn’t. Also, bad intelligence about Viet Minh forces. Plus, Navarre wound up not having to defend Laos. These errors led to debacle.
P3
The French troops at Dien Bien Phu numbered about 11,000, eventually rising to 16,000 ...
11,000 French troops, rises to 16,000. December: French position surrounded. Nearby garrison is almost wiped out. Giap: 50,000 troops. Artillery in commanding hillside positions. March: battle starts. In days, 3 of 8 French strongholds fall.
P4
The French troops paid dearly for their generals’ miscalculations ...
French paid dearly. Underestimated General Giap. Helpless artillery. Inoperative airstrip. Vicious warfare into April. French inflicted casualties but lost ground. May: Viet Minh assaults overran French. Viet Minh won.
P5
The immediate result was to spur an agreement for French withdrawal and the division of Vietnam, with the Viet Minh controlling the northern half ...
Immediate result: French withdrawal, division of Vietnam. French then faced other conflicts in North Africa. Conflict resumed in Vietnam. Vietnam War. Khe Sanh: Giap tried similar approach, but it failed.
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Reading E: Mixed
14.
The Viet Minh victory at Dien Bien Phu was an important milestone in the twentieth century’s wars of liberation.
Chapter 23
Summary. Correct answers must be clearly expressed in the passage. They must also be among the major points of the passage. They should tie as directly as possible to the summary given.
7
A
The refusal of the United States to provide military assistance with both personnel and equipment betrayed the French.
The passage does not discuss the actions of the United States during Dien Bien Phu.
7
B
Before the debacle at Dien Bien Phu, the French were arguably winning the war against the Viet Minh.
Aside from mentioning the French victory at Na San, the passage does not address the progress of the war as a whole before Dien Bien Phu.
3
C
The victory led to Vietnam’s division and the Second Indochina War, as well as anti-French insurgency elsewhere.
Correct. Summarizes P5.
3
D
Failures of intelligence, logistics, and combat support were major contributors to the French defeat.
Correct. Corresponds to large portions of P2 and P4.
23
3
E
Over several months, the French caused heavy Viet Minh losses but kept falling back until they were finally overpowered.
Correct. Summarizes the specific progress of the battle, as outlined in P3 and P4.
7
F
This victory revolutionized military tactics utilized by insurgents in Vietnam and North Africa.
The passage praises Viet Minh military tactics. But it does not indicate that they were employed elsewhere except at Khe Sanh.
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Chapter 23
Reading E: Mixed
Answers and Explanations— 23.5 Evidence of Global Warming P1
Paragraph 1
Comments
S1
There is some debate among politicians and the general citizenry as to whether global warming is real and to what extent it is man-made.
Some debate about global warming among politicians, citizens.
2
However, among the vast majority of climate researchers, there is no controversy.
But not among almost all researchers.
3
For them, global warming is a fact, and most, if not all, of the global warming effects seen thus far are caused by the behavior of humanity.
For them, global warming is happening and it’s caused by humans.
4
Where the controversy comes into play for scientists is in how severe the problem is, how quickly global temperatures will continue to rise, and how quickly damage to the planet will accrue as a result.
Controversy: how severe, how quickly temperatures will rise, damage will accrue.
1.
According to paragraph 1, all of the following are sources of significant scientific debate about global warming EXCEPT:
23
Negative Fact. S4 lists the ongoing elements of significant scientific debate about global warming. Three answer choices will be outlined in S4. One will not be.
3
A
whether the phenomenon is caused by humans
Correct. S2–3 state that “among the vast majority of climate researchers, there is no controversy. For them … most, if not all, of the global warming effects seen thus far are caused by the behavior of humanity.” According to the paragraph, whether global warming is man-made is not a source of significant debate among scientists.
7
B
how severe the issue is
S4: “Where the controversy comes into play for scientists is in how severe the problem is.”
7
C
how rapidly temperatures will rise worldwide
S4: “Where the controversy comes into play for scientists is in … how quickly global temperatures will continue to rise.”
7
D
how fast the Earth will be damaged
S4: “Where the controversy comes into play for scientists is in … how quickly damage to the planet will accrue as a result.”
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Reading E: Mixed
P2
Paragraph 2
Chapter 23
Comments
S1
Since the early 1900s, global temperatures have increased, on average, by 2.5 degrees Fahrenheit (about 1.4 degrees Celsius).
Temperatures have increased 2.5°F since early 1900s.
2
This increase may not seem like much, but it places recent years near the top of the list of the hottest years ever recorded.
Recent years = nearly hottest on record.
3
The trend is also accelerating: most of this change has occurred since 1980, and new records are set nearly every year.
Accelerating trend.
4
Also, temperatures are rising much faster at the poles (above the Arctic Circle and below the Antarctic Circle), with temperature increases occurring there at approximately double the global average.
Temperatures rising at the poles.
5
This phenomenon is triggering a flood of ice melting at the polar caps, a development that will only quicken as temperatures there continue to increase.
Causing lots of ice to melt.
2.
According to paragraph 2, what is true of global temperatures since the early 1900s?
Fact. All of P2 discusses global temperature changes since the early 1900s.
7
A
They are unchanged in most parts of the world.
S1 indicates otherwise, as do other parts of the paragraph.
3
B
Increases are prompting a wave of polar ice melting.
Correct. S5: “This phenomenon is triggering a flood of ice melting at the polar caps, a development that will only quicken as temperatures there continue to increase.”
7
C
They were increasing most rapidly before the 1980s.
S3: “The trend is also accelerating: most of this change has occurred since 1980.”
7
D
Increases are spread relatively evenly across the Earth.
S4 makes it clear that temperatures are rising more rapidly at the poles than elsewhere on the planet.
23
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Chapter 23
3.
23
Reading E: Mixed
Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in paragraph 2? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.
Simplify Sentence. The first part of S4 states that pole temperatures are increasing faster than elsewhere (with a parenthetical definition of the poles). The second part of S4 states that this increase at the poles is about double the global average increase.
7
A
Temperatures at the poles are rising twice as quickly as before.
The sentence says double the global average not double an earlier increase.
7
B
The increase in temperature above the Arctic circle is double that below the Antarctic circle.
The sentence compares the two poles with the rest of the globe not with one another.
3
C
Temperature increases at the poles have been about double the global average.
Correct. This choice says essentially the same thing as S4, but simplifies the language and removes redundancy.
7
D
The global average for temperature increases is double that at the poles.
This is the opposite. The temperature increases at the poles are double the global average.
P3
Paragraph 3
Comments
S1
Global warming is caused by an increase in atmospheric gases known as “greenhouse gases.”
Cause of global warming: greenhouse gases.
2
These gases help trap radiation originating from the Sun that the Earth’s surface reemits.
Trap Sun’s radiation.
3
Some degree of trapping this radiation is a good thing—without it, the Earth would be too cold to support most life forms.
Some of this trapping is good. It keeps the Earth warm enough for life.
4
However, too great an amount of greenhouse gases means that more radiation will be absorbed and temperatures will rise.
But too much, and temperatures will rise.
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Reading E: Mixed
4.
The word “absorbed” in the passage is closest in meaning to
Chapter 23
Vocabulary. “Absorb” = take in, retain, incorporate.
7
A
transmitted through
The greenhouse gases do not transmit the radiation. Rather, they stop it and absorb it.
7
B
reflected back
Opposite. Something that is “reflected back” is sent back without absorbing.
3
C
soaked up
Correct. “More radiation will be absorbed” = more radiation will be soaked up (by the greenhouse gases).
7
D
emitted outward
Opposite. Something that is “emitted outward” is sent away from the source.
P4
Paragraph 4
Comments
S1
The most important greenhouse gas is carbon dioxide, although other gases, such as methane, also contribute to the problem.
Carbon dioxide = most important greenhouse gas.
2
Burning of fossil fuels, such as coal, oil, oil by-products, and natural gas, is the primary cause of increased carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere.
Burning of fossil fuels = primary cause of increase in this gas.
3
Deforestation also contributes to the problem, as a decreased number of trees means that less carbon dioxide is absorbed from the atmosphere and converted into oxygen.
Also deforestation.
4
Finally, carbon dioxide and methane are by-products of increased animal populations, both from increased human populations and from the livestock used as a food source to support those additional humans.
And increased animal populations.
5
Carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere now measure just over 400 parts per million (ppm), which is much higher than at any time in more than 500,000 years.
Current level of the gas: highest in 500,000 years.
6
For context, carbon dioxide levels have been around 280 ppm during more recent historical periods of warmth on Earth, and levels of around 200 ppm are associated with ice ages.
Historical levels during warmer periods and ice ages, for context.
23
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Chapter 23
5.
Reading E: Mixed
According to paragraph 4, which of the following is a cause of increased greenhouse gases other than carbon dioxide?
Fact. S1 and S4 provide the only mention of a greenhouse gas other than carbon dioxide: methane.
7
A
The ice ages
S6 mentions the ice ages. But the context is that the ice ages are associated with relatively low carbon dioxide levels. No other gases are mentioned.
7
B
The burning of natural gas
S2 mentions the burning of fossil fuels, such as natural gas, as a cause of increased carbon dioxide levels. (In fact, natural gas is largely methane, although the passage does not say so.) S2 does not say that the burning of fossil fuels causes increases in greenhouse gases other than carbon dioxide.
7
C
Deforestation
S3 mentions deforestation as a cause of increased carbon dioxide levels. Other greenhouse gases are not mentioned.
3
D
Farm animals that feed humans
Correct. S4: “Finally, carbon dioxide and methane are by-products of increased animal populations … from the livestock used as a food source to support those additional humans.” The word “livestock” refers to farm animals.
6.
23
According to paragraph 4, which of the following is true of current atmospheric concentrations of carbon dioxide?
Fact. S5 discusses current levels of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere and S6 offers historical levels as context.
7
A
They are similar to those measured during historically warmer periods.
S6 states that historically warmer periods are associated with carbon dioxide concentrations of around 280 ppm. Current levels are around 400 ppm.
3
B
They dramatically exceed any level recorded during the past half-million years.
Correct. S5: “Carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere now measure just over 400 parts per million (ppm), which is much higher than at any time in more than 500,000 years.”
7
C
They approximate levels typically observed during ice ages.
S5 states that current levels are around 400 ppm. S6 states that typical levels during ice ages were around 200 ppm.
7
D
They appear to be the direct result of global warming.
The causality is reversed. Global warming is caused by greatly increased carbon dioxide concentrations, since carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas.
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Reading E: Mixed
7.
The word “primary” in the passage is closest in meaning to
Chapter 23
Vocabulary. “Primary” = first, most important.
7
A
only
Too extreme. “Primary” and “only” are not synonyms. In fact, “primary” implies that there are other, less important causes.
3
B
leading
Correct. “Burning of fossil fuels … is the primary cause of increased carbon dioxide levels” = burning of fossil fuels is the leading cause of these increased levels of carbon dioxide.
7
C
precise
Not quite. “Precise” = exact. The precise cause would be the cause or the only cause, so this word would be extreme as well.
7
D
likely
Not quite, either. “Likely” = probable. That’s not the same as “primary” or “leading.”
P5
Paragraph 5
Comments
S1
The impact of the warming of the climate is felt in several broad areas globally.
Impact of global warming.
2
Ocean level rise is perhaps the most significant.
Ocean level rise.
3
Warm water expands; moreover, polar land ice melting causes ocean levels to become higher.
Reasons: warm water expands, land ice melts.
4
(The melting of sea ice, in fact, does not directly raise the ocean levels, because the ice was already floating in the sea before melting, but it does change the mineral composition of ocean waters, potentially altering ocean currents and causing difficulties for marine life.)
(Parenthetical comment about melting sea ice.)
5
Within the last century, ocean levels have climbed 7 inches (about 18 centimeters) worldwide.
7-inch climb in last 100 years.
6
Computer models estimate that this rise will accelerate, with an additional 12 to 36 inches (30 to 91 centimeters) of ocean level rise expected by 2100.
Will likely accelerate.
7
Because more than 100 million people live within 36 inches (91 centimeters) of sea level, the impact on civilization could be profound.
Potential for profound impact on civilization.
23
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Chapter 23
8.
Reading E: Mixed
Why does the author mention that “it does change the mineral composition of ocean waters, potentially altering ocean currents and causing difficulties for marine life”?
Purpose. The highlighted words are in S4, which is within parentheses. These parentheses mean that the sentence is a side comment. S4 explains that the melting of sea ice does not lead to ocean level rise, but it does have other serious effects on the ocean (the highlighted portion). The meaning of “does” in S4 is “still, even so.” S3 describes how the melting of land ice directly causes ocean level rise, a serious consequence. So this part of S4 is essentially saying that melting sea ice also has serious consequences, although not a rise in ocean levels (at least directly).
7
A
To point out that melting sea ice can also cause ocean levels to rise
S4 claims the opposite. Melting sea ice does not directly cause ocean level rise.
3
B
To point out that melting sea ice is not benign ecologically
Correct. The highlighted portion of S4 points out that other problems do occur as a result of melting sea ice. “Benign” = good, harmless, favorable.
7
C
To indicate what is probably the most important problem associated with global warming
S2 states that ocean level rise is perhaps the most significant effect of global warming. According to S4, melting sea ice does not directly contribute to that effect.
7
D
To shift to a longer discussion of problems caused by global warming other than ocean level rise
After the highlighted phrase, the paragraph goes right back to discussing ocean level rise.
23 9.
The word “profound” in the passage is closest in meaning to
Vocabulary. “Profound” = great, intense, severe, very deep.
3
A
acute
Correct. “The impact on civilization could be profound” = the impact on civilization could be acute (= sharp and deep).
7
B
noticeable
Not strong enough. “Noticeable” = easily seen or noticed, clear or apparent.
7
C
marginal
Opposite. “Marginal” = situated at the edge of something or of minor importance.
7
D
cumulative
Unrelated. “Cumulative” = increasing in quantity or degree, particularly through successive or consecutive additions.
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Reading E: Mixed
10.
Chapter 23
Paragraph 5 supports which of the following statements?
Inference. P5 is devoted to discussing a key effect of global warming: a projected rise in sea levels.
7
A
Even if projections are correct, by 2100 fewer than 100 million people will be affected by rising sea levels.
S6 states that 12–36 inches of ocean level rise are expected by 2100, and more than 100 million people live within 36 inches of sea level. There are two problems with this choice. The first is that populations in low-lying areas may grow before 2100. Second, a person need not live within 36 inches of sea level to be affected by rising sea levels. For instance, that person may work in the directly affected area.
7
B
After 2100, given current trends, ocean levels are projected to stop increasing.
S6 states that 12–36 inches of ocean level rise are expected by 2100. But nothing in the paragraph suggests that this upward trend will stop after 2100.
7
C
Climate warming has a greater impact on the melting of land ice than sea ice.
The paragraph never suggests that climate warming melts one type of ice faster or better than the other type.
3
D
The mineral composition of ocean water at present is important for some marine life.
Correct. S4: “The melting of sea ice … does change the mineral composition of ocean waters, potentially … causing difficulties for marine life.” If changes in the mineral composition of ocean waters can lead to difficulties for marine life, then the current mineral composition must be important for at least some of that marine life.
23
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Chapter 23
Reading E: Mixed
Paragraphs 6 & 7 P6 S1
Other effects of climate (= global) warming.
2
As glaciers in mountainous areas melt, much of the water runoff is not trapped on its way to the ocean.
3
The shrinking of these glaciers deprives local populations of a critical source of fresh water.
Shrinking glaciers = less fresh water.
4
Global warming has also subtly changed many ecosystems, most notably ocean coral reefs.
Changes in ecosystems, especially coral reefs.
5
These ecosystems can become uninhabitable for existing plant and animal species.
Can become uninhabitable.
6
It is estimated that over one million species, most of which are marine life, have become extinct as a result of these events.
Estimate: >1,000,000 species have become extinct.
Finally, climate warming has increased the intensity and frequency of violent storms.
Storms are more intense and frequent.
2
In the North Atlantic, for example, tropical storms and hurricanes are now more than twice as frequent as they were a century ago.
North Atlantic example.
3
These storms can cause tremendous damage to coastal ecosystems as well as to heavily populated areas, with striking recent examples being the devastation caused by Hurricane Katrina in 2005 and by Hurricanes Harvey and Irma in 2017.
Damage to coasts.
P7 S1
23
Climate warming also has other serious effects on the planet.
Comments
11.
The word “intensity” in the passage is closest in meaning to
Vocabulary. “Intensity” = strength, power.
7
A
regularity
Unrelated. “Regularity” or predictable and consistent frequency or occurrence is not related to the strength of the event.
7
B
immediacy
“Immediacy” = nearness. This is not the same as intensity. A storm that is nearer to someone may feel more intense, but the storm itself may not be any more intense on its own.
7
C
anxiety
Unrelated. “Anxiety” is a feeling of worry, nervousness, or unease. The intensity of an event might cause anxiety, but these are not synonymous.
3
D
severity
Correct. “Climate warming has increased the intensity … of violent storms” = it has increased the severity of violent storms, it has made them more severe.
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Reading E: Mixed
12.
Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 6 or paragraph 7 as a consequence of the warming of the climate?
Chapter 23
Negative Fact. After the discussion of ocean level rise in P5, P6–P7 discuss other consequences of global warming. Three answer choices will be included in P6–7. One will not be.
3
A
The impact of ocean level rise on coastal ecosystems and human habitations
Correct. Ocean level rise is not mentioned in P6 or P7.
7
B
The contraction or disappearance of sources of fresh water
P6 S3: “The shrinking of these glaciers deprives local populations of a critical source of fresh water.”
7
C
The transformation of some ecosystems into uninhabitable zones
P6 S4–5: “Global warming has also subtly changed many ecosystems … These ecosystems can become uninhabitable for existing plant and animal species.”
7
D
An increase in the frequency of powerful storms
P7 S1: “Climate warming has increased the intensity and frequency of violent storms.”
P6
Paragraph 6
S1
Climate warming also has other serious effects on the planet.
2
A As glaciers in mountainous areas melt,
much of the water runoff is not trapped on its way to the ocean. 3
B The shrinking of these glaciers deprives
local populations of a critical source of fresh water. 4–6
C Global warming has also subtly changed
many ecosystems, most notably ocean coral reefs. These ecosystems can become uninhabitable for existing plant and animal species. It is estimated that over one million species, most of which are marine life, have become extinct as a result of these events. End
D
Comments
“Such water” in the new sentence does not have anything to refer to in the previous sentence.
23
S2 contains anchors for “such water” and “the melting glaciers.” However, the phrase “these nearby inhabitants” has no anchor in S2. Correct. All the required noun phrases are in S3 (“these glaciers,” “local populations,” and “fresh water”). The new sentence can properly talk about these concepts and explain further why this fresh water source is so critical.
The discussion of fresh water derived from glaciers is in the first half of the paragraph.
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Chapter 23
13.
Reading E: Mixed
Such water, collected directly off the melting glaciers by these nearby inhabitants, may be the only drinkable water for hundreds of miles. 7
A
Choice A
7
B
Choice B
3
C
Choice C
7
D
Choice D
Insert Text. The new sentence begins with “such water.” So the prior sentence must indicate what that particular water is. In addition, the phrase “the melting glaciers” suggests that these glaciers have already been discussed. Finally, “these nearby inhabitants” must refer to nearby inhabitants that have already been mentioned.
Correct.
Whole Passage
Comments
P1
There is some debate among politicians and the general citizenry as to whether global warming is real and to what extent it is man-made ...
Some debate about global warming among politicians, citizens. But not among almost all researchers. For them, global warming is happening and it’s caused by humans. Controversy: how severe, how quickly temperatures will rise, damage will accrue.
P2
Since the early 1900s, global temperatures have increased, on average, by 2.5 degrees Fahrenheit (about 1.4 degrees Celsius) ...
Temperatures have increased 2.5°F since early 1900s. Recent years = nearly hottest on record. Accelerating trend. Temperatures rising at the poles. Causing lots of ice to melt.
P3
Global warming is caused by an increase in atmospheric gases known as “greenhouse gases.” ...
Cause of global warming: greenhouse gases. Trap Sun’s radiation. Some of this trapping is good. It keeps the Earth warm enough for life. But too much, and temperatures will rise.
P4
The most important greenhouse gas is carbon dioxide, although other gases, such as methane, also contribute to the problem ...
Carbon dioxide = most important greenhouse gas. Burning of fossil fuels = primary cause of increase in this gas. Also deforestation. And increased animal populations. Current level of the gas: highest in 500,000 years. Historical levels during warmer periods and ice ages, for context.
P5
The impact of the warming of the climate is felt in several broad areas globally ...
Impact of global warming. Ocean level rise. Reasons: warm water expands, land ice melts. (Parenthetical comment about melting sea ice.) 7-inch climb in last 100 years. Will likely accelerate. Potential for profound impact on civilization.
P6
Climate warming also has other serious effects on the planet ...
Other effects of climate (= global) warming. Shrinking glaciers = less fresh water. Changes in ecosystems, especially coral reefs. Can become uninhabitable. Estimate: >1,000,000 species have become extinct.
P7
Finally, climate warming has increased the intensity and frequency of violent storms ...
Storms are more intense and frequent. North Atlantic example. Damage to coasts.
23
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Reading E: Mixed
14.
With regard to global warming, the only significant debate among researchers is about the speed and strength of the ensuing effects.
Chapter 23
Summary. Correct answers must be clearly expressed in the passage. They must also be among the major points of the passage. They should tie as directly as possible to the summary given.
3
A
Temperatures are rising worldwide at an accelerating pace, often setting new records.
Correct. P2 focuses on this trend.
7
B
Methane, which is produced by increasing animal populations, is an even more potent greenhouse gas than carbon dioxide.
The idea that methane is even more potent as a greenhouse gas than carbon dioxide happens to be true, when you compare molecule to molecule. But this idea is never mentioned in the passage.
7
C
Even though temperature rise is lower at the poles than elsewhere, sea ice melting is contributing to rising ocean levels.
P5 indicates otherwise. Temperature rise at the poles is higher than elsewhere, and melting sea ice does not directly cause ocean levels to rise.
3
D
Carbon dioxide, which is generated by fossil fuel combustion and other sources, is the key greenhouse gas causing global warming.
Correct. This core idea is expressed in P3 (greenhouse gases cause global warming) and in P4 (carbon dioxide is the most important greenhouse gas, and the primary cause of the increase in carbon dioxide is the combustion of fossil fuels).
3
E
Climate warming is raising ocean levels, withering sources of fresh water, harming ecosystems, and amplifying storms.
Correct. These serious consequences are described in P5, P6, and P7.
7
F
Greenhouse gases trap radiation from the Sun indirectly by absorbing the energy re-released by the Earth’s surface when sunlight strikes and warms it.
This idea is mentioned in P3 (in fact, in less detail there). But this technical point is minor in the scheme of this passage.
23
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Chapter 23
Reading E: Mixed
Answers and Explanations— 23.6 Chimpanzee Intelligence Paragraphs 1 & 2
23
Comments Humans and chimps share ~99% of their genes.
P1 S1
It is often reported that human beings share about 99 percent of their genetic code with chimpanzees.
2
This is a slight overstatement, but not by much: only 1.2 percent of the human genome differs from that of the chimp.
3
By contrast, consider that the genomes of the chimpanzee, or African ape, and the Asian ape, called the orangutan, differ by roughly 3 percent, which is more than twice as much.
Chimp and orangutan differ by 3%, more than twice as much.
4
And yet while the chimpanzee is known as one of the more intelligent mammals—it can learn words, use tools to retrieve food, and both experience and express human-like emotion such as grief—it is also strikingly not human in its cognitive abilities.
Chimps are intelligent but very much not human.
5
So what could account for this difference in cognitive performance, given the similarity in the genetic codes of the two species?
So, given how similar the genes are, why are chimps and humans so different in intelligence?
P2 S1
To answer this question, scientists have taken many different approaches. Two of these approaches are discussed below.
2
1.
According to paragraph 1, the genetic codes of the orangutan and the chimpanzee differ by
Two approaches to the question.
Fact. S3 indicates the difference between the genetic codes of the chimpanzee and the orangutan.
7
A
less than half the difference between human and chimpanzee genetic codes
S2 notes that “only 1.2 percent of the human genome differs from that of the chimp.”
3
B
more than twice the difference between human and chimpanzee genetic codes
Correct. S3 states that “the genomes of the chimpanzee, or African ape, and the Asian ape, called the orangutan, differ by roughly 3 percent, which is more than twice as much.”
7
C
about 1.2 percent
This is the difference between human and chimpanzee genetic codes.
7
D
about 97 percent
Chimp and orangutan codes are about 97% similar (100% – 3%), not 97% different.
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Reading E: Mixed
P3
Paragraph 3
Chapter 23
Comments
S1
Imitation and Emulation.
Imitation and Emulation (title of section).
2
The behavior of young chimpanzees has been analyzed alongside the behavior of young human children in formal studies for more than a century.
Lots of research analyzing behavior of young chimps and young children.
3
The majority of this research has led to the prevailing view that humans are better at imitation and chimps are better at emulation.
Prevailing view: humans better at imitation, chimps better at emulation.
4
Imitation and emulation are both forms of observational learning, but imitation focuses on reproducing an observed action with less regard to the results it produces, while emulation focuses on reproducing the results of the action.
Both are observational learning. Imitation = reproducing actions (less about results). Emulation = reproducing results.
5
In other words, a human child would simply imitate a model’s actions, while baby chimpanzees would survey the model’s actions and determine how relevant they were to the environmental goal before reproducing them.
Child imitates model’s actions. Baby chimp first studies how relevant actions are to the goal.
2.
According to paragraph 3, a difference between emulation and imitation is that
Fact. S4–5 define the two terms and contrast them against each other.
7
A
emulation is a form of observational learning more advanced than imitation
S4 identifies emulation as a form of observational learning. But P3 never claims that emulation is a more advanced form of this learning than imitation is.
3
B
imitation prioritizes observed actions more than emulation does
Correct. S4 notes that “imitation focuses on reproducing an observed action with less regard to the results it produces, while emulation focuses on reproducing the results of the action.”
7
C
emulation focuses on end goals to a lesser degree than imitation does
Opposite. According to S4–5, emulation behavior focuses more on end goals than imitation does.
7
D
imitation involves less accurate reproduction than emulation does
Accuracy of reproduction is not directly compared for the two modes of behavior. If anything, it might be implied that imitation involves a more accurate reproduction of activities. At the same time, emulation may involve better reproduction of end results.
23
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Chapter 23
3.
Reading E: Mixed
The word “prevailing” in the passage is closest in meaning to 7
A
conflicting
Unrelated. “Conflicting” = incompatible or contradictory.
7
B
beneficial
Although a “prevailing” or widely held view might also be “beneficial” (resulting in good), it is not necessarily so.
7
C
alternative
Opposite, to some degree.
3
D
accepted
Correct. “This research has led to the prevailing view” = this research has led to the accepted or widely held view.
4.
The word “they” in the passage refers to
23
Vocabulary. “Prevailing” = widely held, currently popular, dominant.
Reference. S5 contains the pronoun “they.” What would be relevant to the environmental goal?
7
A
the researchers
The relevance of the researchers was not considered.
7
B
the human children
Not necessarily. The human children were likely not present at the same time as the baby chimpanzees. Regardless, the relevance of the human children was not discussed.
3
C
the model’s actions
Correct. “Baby chimpanzees would survey the model’s actions and determine how relevant they (= those actions) were to the environmental goal before reproducing them (= those actions).”
7
D
the baby chimpanzees
Logically, the baby chimpanzees are not determining how relevant they themselves are to the environmental goal. They’re making this determination about the actions they observe.
P4
Paragraph 4
Comments
S1
While humans and chimps both, to a degree, demonstrate imitation and emulation, humans generally imitate more closely than chimps do.
Both species demonstrate both behaviors. But humans imitate more closely than chimps.
2
Another interesting finding is that children will imitate the behavior of other species as well, while chimpanzees will only imitate the behavior of other chimpanzees.
Children also imitate other species. Chimps don’t.
3
So although chimpanzees do imitate, they do so less consistently and less broadly than do human children.
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Reading E: Mixed
5.
The word “demonstrate” in the passage is closest in meaning to
Chapter 23
Vocabulary. “Demonstrate” (a behavior) = show, display, exhibit, reveal.
3
A
display
Correct. “Humans and chimps both … demonstrate both imitation and emulation” = both humans and chimps display both of these behaviors.
7
B
determine
In some contexts, “demonstrate” and “determine” have nearly the same meaning. However, determining behavior (= fixing or controlling it) is very different from demonstrating, or displaying, behavior.
7
C
regulate
Unrelated. “Regulate” = to control, set, or supervise.
7
D
reinforce
Unrelated. “Reinforce” =strengthen or support.
P5
Paragraph 5
Comments
S1
It is hypothesized that the fact that humans excel at imitation is in part what has allowed culture to accumulate.
Hypothesis: Human skill at imitation helps culture to accumulate.
2
In fact, research has shown that human children often imitate too closely; they often imitate moves that are unnecessary in achieving a goal.
Children often imitate too closely.
3
Why do they do this?
Why?
4
There is research suggesting that human children imitate not only to reproduce desired effects (such as finding a treat hidden inside a box), but also for social reasons: they copy other humans to be more “like them.”
Children imitate to produce a result but also to be more “like” other people.
5
The human propensity for conformity, for identifying with others through similar behavior, is what gives rise to fads and trends.
Human tendency to conform. Gives rise to fads.
6
It is also a driver of in-group and out-of-group identification, a feature of human behavior across cultures.
In-group and out-of-group identification.
7
In this way, over-imitation is a human trait that helps drive cultural transmission over generations—a characteristic of the human species that separates it from other primates.
Over-imitation helps drive cultural transmission, which other primates lack.
23
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Chapter 23
6.
Reading E: Mixed
According to paragraph 5, the human tendency to conform does which of the following?
Fact. S5 directly mentions the “human propensity for conformity” and defines it as “identifying with others through similar behavior.” S4 introduces the idea in other words. S5–7 describe various effects of this tendency.
7
A
It combats in-group behavior.
Opposite. S6: “It is also a driver of in-group and out-of-group identification.”
7
B
It interferes with cultural transmission.
Opposite. S7 states that “over-imitation is a human trait that helps drive cultural transmission over generations.”
3
C
It generates social trends.
Correct. S5: “The human propensity for conformity … gives rise to fads and trends.”
7
D
It is a product of emulation behavior.
The tendency to conform leads to over-imitation. It is not a product of emulation (which focuses less on reproducing actions for social reasons).
7.
In paragraph 5, the author mentions finding a treat inside a box in order to
Purpose. S4 contains this example in parentheses.
7
A
argue that children are less able to follow directions
There is no support in the paragraph for this point.
7
B
indicate that children will pursue a goal even at high costs
There is no support in the paragraph for this point, either.
3
C
illustrate the kind of goal that a child might have
Correct. S4 states that “human children imitate … to reproduce desired effects (such as finding a treat hidden inside a box).” The parentheses and the words “such as” indicate that finding a treat is an example of a “desired effect.”
7
D
show that humans are more driven by social reasons than chimpanzees are
S2-4 imply that human children are more driven to imitate by social reasons (to conform with others) than baby chimpanzees are. But that is not why the author cites the example of finding the treat (which is not a social reason).
23
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Reading E: Mixed
Paragraphs 6 & 7
Chapter 23
Comments
The Timing of Myelination.
Timing of Myelination (title of section).
2
Another distinction between humans and chimps has to do with the biological development of their brains—specifically, the timing and extent of brain development.
Another human–chimp difference: brain development.
3
In chimps, “myelination” ends earlier than it does in humans.
“Myelination” ends earlier in chimps.
4
Myelination is the process by which the neurons of the brain are coated in a fatty material called myelin.
Myelination = coating brain neurons in fatty myelin.
5
Myelin aids the conduction of electrical impulses along the axon of a neuron and helps preserve the electric current as it travels from one neuron to the next.
Helps conduct electrical impulses in brain.
6
As a result, an animal’s nervous system processes information more efficiently, with improved cognition and neural function.
Better neural function.
7
The chimpanzee brain reaches its adult level of myelination by the time it reaches sexual maturity.
Chimp brain finishes myelination by sexual maturity.
8
The human brain, however, continues to myelinate well into adulthood, long after sexual maturity has been reached.
Human brain continues well into adulthood.
To what extent does the difference in myelination explain the difference in the cognitive abilities of adult humans and chimpanzees?
How much does myelination explain human–chimp differences in intelligence?
Though the extent is unclear, it is a question that scientists continue to research in order to understand better what distinguishes human intelligence from chimp intelligence.
Research continues.
P6 S1
P7 S1
2
8.
All of the following are mentioned in paragraph 6 about myelination EXCEPT:
23
Negative Fact. All of P6 deals with myelination. Three answer choices will be contained in the paragraph. One will not be.
3
A
It is a process by which neurons shed their fatty coating.
Correct. P6 S4: “Myelination is the process by which the neurons of the brain are coated in a fatty material.” The neurons do not shed this coating, but rather acquire it.
7
B
It ends later in humans than in chimpanzees.
P6 S3: “In chimps, ‘myelination’ ends earlier than it does in humans.”
7
C
It helps electrical impulses move through neurons.
P6 S5: “Myelin aids the conduction of electrical impulses along the axon of a neuron.”
7
D
It improves the efficiency of information processing in the brain.
P6 S6: “As a result, an animal’s nervous system processes information more efficiently.”
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Chapter 23
9.
Reading E: Mixed
Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in the passage? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.
Simplify Sentence. S8 describes how long myelination continues in human brains. In contrast to chimpanzee brains, human brains keeps myelinating “well into adulthood, long after sexual maturity has been reached.”
7
A
Human brains do not stop myelinating, even after sexual maturity has been achieved, until their demise.
“Demise” = death. The original sentence does not claim that myelination only stops at death.
3
B
Adult humans still undergo myelination in their brains after they are sexually mature.
Correct. This version summarizes the original accurately.
7
C
Adult humans who are sexually mature no longer experience neural myelination.
The original states that myelination continues “long after sexual maturity has been reached.”
7
D
Long after humans reach adulthood, their brains continue to myelinate until they reach sexual maturity.
This version changes the chronology of key events, placing sexual maturity much after adulthood and making sexual maturity the endpoint of myelination. The original states otherwise.
23
10.
The word “distinguishes” in the passage is closest in meaning to
Vocabulary. “Distinguish” = separate, tell apart, characterize the differences between two things.
7
A
constitutes
Unrelated. “Constitute” = to be made of or to combine elements to form a single “whole.”
7
B
confounds
Opposite. In some contexts, “confound” = confuse two things, mix them up.
7
C
underlies
Unrelated. “Underlie” = to be the cause or basis of something.
3
D
differentiates
Correct. “What distinguishes human intelligence from chimp intelligence” = what differentiates or separates human intelligence from chimp intelligence.
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Reading E: Mixed
P5
Paragraph 5
S1–2
It is hypothesized that the fact that humans excel at imitation is in part what has allowed culture to accumulate. In fact, research has shown that human children often imitate too closely; they often imitate moves that are unnecessary in achieving a goal.
3–5
A Why do they do this? There is research suggesting that
human children imitate not only to reproduce desired effects (such as finding a treat hidden inside a box), but also for social reasons: they copy other humans to be more “like them.” The human propensity for conformity, for identifying with others through similar behavior, is what gives rise to fads and trends. 6
7
B It is also a driver of in-group and out-of-group identification, a feature of human behavior across cultures.
C In this way, over-imitation is a human trait that helps
drive cultural transmission over generations—a characteristic of the human species that separates it from other primates.
End
D
Chapter 23
Comments
Correct. The phrase “These unneeded maneuvers” in the inserted sentence refers back to “moves that are unnecessary” in S2. The new sentence pairs well with S2, describing a way in which human behavior seems to be inefficient. In this position, the phrase “These unneeded maneuvers” seems to refer to “fads and trends” in S5. This reference doesn’t make sense. Moreover, the paragraph has moved on to explaining the behavior in question. Inserting the new sentence here breaks up that explanation.
23
In this position, the phrase “These unneeded maneuvers” seems to refer to “in-group and out-of-group identification” or to “human behavior” in general in S6. Neither reference makes sense. Also, the paragraph has moved on to explaining the behavior. If the sentence is inserted here, the phrase “These unneeded maneuvers” lacks a sensible anchor in the prior sentence. Moreover, the paragraph changed the subject a few sentences ago.
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Chapter 23
11.
Reading E: Mixed
These unneeded maneuvers make the whole behavior less efficient.
3
A
Choice A
7
B
Choice B
7
C
Choice C
7
D
Choice D
Insert Text. The sentence to be inserted begins with “These unneeded maneuvers.” So the previous sentence should describe these kinds of maneuvers, providing a context and an anchor for the insertion. Moreover, the new sentence should not interrupt the existing flow of logic in the paragraph. Correct.
23
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Reading E: Mixed
Whole Passage
Chapter 23
Comments
P1
It is often reported that human beings share about 99 percent of their genetic code with chimpanzees ...
Humans and chimps share ~99% of their genes. Chimp and orangutan differ by 3%, more than twice as much. Chimps are intelligent but very much not human. So, given how similar the genes are, why are chimps and humans so different in intelligence?
P2
To answer this question, scientists have taken many different approaches ...
Two approaches to the question.
P3
Imitation and Emulation. The behavior of young chimpanzees has been analyzed alongside the behavior of young human children in formal studies for more than a century ...
Imitation and Emulation (title of section). Lots of research analyzing behavior of young chimps and young children. Prevailing view: humans better at imitation, chimps better at emulation. Both are observational learning. Imitation = reproducing actions (less about results). Emulation = reproducing results. Child imitates model’s actions. Baby chimp first studies how relevant actions are to the goal.
P4
While humans and chimps both, to a degree, demonstrate both imitation and emulation, humans generally imitate more closely than chimps do ...
Both species demonstrate both behaviors. But humans imitate more closely than chimps. Children also imitate other species. Chimps don’t.
P5
It is hypothesized that the fact that humans excel at imitation is in part what has allowed culture to accumulate ...
Hypothesis: Human skill at imitation helps culture to accumulate. Children often imitate too closely. Why? Children imitate to produce a result but also to be more “like” other people. Human tendency to conform. Gives rise to fads. In-group and out-of-group identification. Over-imitation helps drive cultural transmission, which other primates lack.
P6
The Timing of Myelination. Another distinction between humans and chimps has to do with the biological development of their brains—specifically, the timing and extent of brain development ...
Timing of Myelination (title of section). Another human-chimp difference: brain development. “Myelination” ends earlier in chimps. Myelination = coating brain neurons in fatty myelin. Helps conduct electrical impulses in brain. Better neural function. Chimp brain finishes myelination by sexual maturity. Human brain continues well into adulthood.
P7
To what extent does the difference in myelination explain the difference in the cognitive abilities of adult humans and chimpanzees? ...
How much does myelination explain human– chimp differences in intelligence? Research continues.
23
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Chapter 23
Reading E: Mixed
12. Select from the six statements below TWO that characterize emulation only, TWO that characterize imitation only, and ONE that characterizes BOTH forms of behavior, according to the passage. One of the statements will NOT be used.
23
Table. P3 defines and explains both terms. P4 continues to contrast the two phenomena. P5 focuses on why humans might imitate or even over-imitate.
A
Baby chimpanzees are better at this behavior than human children.
Emulation only. S3 and S5 in P3 support this point.
B
This behavior is a form of observational learning.
Both. P3 S4: “Imitation and emulation are both forms of observational learning.”
C
This behavior focuses more on reaching goals than on reproducing specific actions observed.
Emulation only. P3 S4: “Emulation focuses on reproducing the results of the action.”
D
Human children perform this behavior more broadly than chimpanzees do.
Imitation only. P4 S3: “So although chimpanzees do imitate, they do so … less broadly than do human children.”
E
In humans, this behavior can be motivated by social considerations.
Imitation only. P5 S4: “Human children imitate not only to reproduce desired effects … but also for social reasons.”
F
This behavior subsides once sexual maturity is reached.
Neither. The passage makes this point about chimpanzee myelination, not about either emulation or imitation.
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Reading E: Mixed
Chapter 23
Answers and Explanations—23.7 The Flying Fox P1
Paragraph 1
Comments
S1
The grey-headed fruit bat, also known as the flying fox, is one of the largest bats in Australia, with a wingspan of 1 meter (about 3.3 feet).
Flying fox = one of largest bats in Australia.
2
Called a fox because of the red collar of fur around its neck and the fur that extends the length of its body, it does not resemble other, smaller species of bats elsewhere in the world.
Doesn’t resemble other bats.
3
It does not echolocate (that is, locate nearby objects using reflected echoes of its high-pitched screeches), but instead navigates by sight, and accordingly, it has relatively large eyes for a bat.
Uses sight rather than sound to navigate.
4
It can be found along the eastern coast of the continent, including in several urban areas.
Found on eastern coast.
5
The bats spend much of their time hanging from trees, and they dwell in colonies or “camps,” groups that range in size from hundreds to tens of thousands.
Dwells in large colonies.
6
The flying fox is most visible at dusk, when it emerges in search of food: specifically, the nectar and pollen of gum trees, as well as fruit.
Most visible at dusk. Searches for food.
7
It is especially fond of eucalyptus.
8
These bats often fly long distances in search of food—in some cases as far as 50 kilometers (about 31 miles).
1.
The word “urban” in the passage is closest in meaning to
23
Often flies long distances for food.
Vocabulary. “Urban” = in or near a city.
7
A
rural
Opposite. “Rural” = country, rustic.
3
B
metropolitan
Correct. “It can be found … in several urban areas” = it can be found in several metropolitan areas, in several cities and the surrounding regions. “Metropolitan” more precisely relates to large cities, whereas “urban” can refer to any city. But in this context, the two words are sufficiently close.
7
C
residential
Not necessarily. Residential areas can be urban, suburban, or rural.
7
D
outlying
Opposite, perhaps, if population centers are taken to be urban.
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Chapter 23
2.
Reading E: Mixed
According to paragraph 1, which of the following is NOT true of the flying fox?
Negative Fact. All of P1 has to do with the flying fox. Three answer choices will be included in the paragraph. One will not be.
3
A
It has a wingspan larger than that of any other bat.
Correct. S1: The flying fox is “one of the largest bats in Australia.” The passage does not call it the largest bat in existence, or the one with the biggest wingspan.
7
B
It will fly long distances to find food.
S8: “These bats often fly long distances in search of food.”
7
C
It dwells on the eastern coast of Australia.
S4: “It can be found along the eastern coast of the continent.”
7
D
It navigates by sight rather than by sound.
S3: “It does not echolocate (that is, locate nearby objects using reflected echoes of its high-pitched screeches), but instead navigates by sight.”
P2
Paragraph 2
Comments
S1
Because of their declining population, as well as their role in the maintenance of a healthy ecosystem that relies on their dispersal of the seeds of native trees and the pollination of flowers, flying foxes are designated a “vulnerable species” by the International Union for Conservation of Nature’s (IUCN) Red List of Threatened Species.
Population is declining. They help maintain healthy ecosystems. So flying foxes are a “vulnerable species.”
2
Furthermore, they are now protected under federal law in Australia, and in the state of New South Wales, it is illegal to destroy protected flying fox roost sites.
Now protected under law.
3
Over a century ago, they existed in the millions, but estimates now place them at only about 600,000.
Used to be millions of them. Now only ~600,000.
4
Notably, the flying fox is the only mammal that consumes both nectar and fruit and resides in Australian subtropical rain forests, rendering it essential to the ecological balance of these forests.
Has an essential role in subtropical rainforests.
23
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Reading E: Mixed
3.
According to paragraph 2, in which of the following locations is it illegal to destroy the roost of a flying fox?
Chapter 23
Fact. S2 mentions where this action is illegal.
7
A
Along the western coast of Australia
The passage does not refer to the western coast of Australia.
7
B
In internationally conserved parts of Australia
The passage does not refer to “internationally conserved parts” of Australia.
7
C
Throughout all of Australia
S2 states that the flying fox is “now protected under federal law in Australia.” But the same sentence narrows down the illegal action in question to New South Wales.
3
D
In New South Wales, Australia
Correct. S2 states that “in the state of New South Wales, it is illegal to destroy protected flying fox roost sites.”
4.
Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 2 about the flying fox’s consumption of nectar and fruit in Australian subtropical rain forests?
Inference. S4 discusses the flying fox’s consumption of fruit and nectar. Both S1 and S4 discuss the bat’s role in Australian subtropical rain forests.
7
A
It is typical behavior for mammals in these forests.
S4: “Notably, the flying fox is the only mammal that consumes both nectar and fruit and resides in Australian subtropical rain forests.”
7
B
It is the only way that flying foxes acquire nutrition.
The paragraph never claims that nectar and fruit are the only way that these bats feed.
3
C
It is critical for seed distribution and flower pollination in these forests.
Correct. S1 and S4 together support this inference. S1 states that the flying fox has a “role in the maintenance of a healthy ecosystem that relies on their dispersal of the seeds of native trees and the pollination of flowers.” S4 notes that “the flying fox is the only mammal that consumes both nectar and fruit and resides in Australian subtropical rain forests, rendering it essential to the ecological balance of these forests.”
7
D
It makes the flying fox vital to the ecosystems of subtropics across the globe.
This answer choice is outside the scope of the passage. Only subtropics in Australia are being discussed.
23
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Chapter 23
5.
The word “dispersal” in the passages is closest in meaning to
Vocabulary. “Dispersal” = spreading, scattering, distributing something widely.
7
A
planting
The idea here is that the bats spread the seeds rather than “planting” them (placing the seeds directly into the ground).
3
B
scattering
Correct. “A healthy ecosystem that relies on their dispersal of the seeds of native trees” = a healthy ecosystem that relies on their scattering of the seeds of native trees.
7
C
germinating
“Germination” = when the seed actually begins to grow. This would not occur until after the seeds have been spread, and this would not be done by the bat.
7
D
swallowing
In this context, this would be the opposite. If the bird “swallowed” (consumed or ate) the seeds, then it could not spread them.
P3
23
Reading E: Mixed
Paragraph 3
Comments
S1
The clearing away of flying fox habitats for development is one cause of their population decline.
One cause of population decline = clearing habitats.
2
In addition to the loss of foraging habitat, threats to the flying fox include extreme heat waves, natural predators such as eagles and crocodiles, and human beings who perceive the bats as a nuisance or threat.
Other threats, including humans.
3
Recently, in the New South Wales town of Bateman’s Bay, thousands of flying foxes descended into the trees and clotheslines, leading the town to call a state of emergency and commit 2.5 million Australian dollars (about 1.8 million United States dollars) toward scattering the bats.
Example of flying fox invasion in one town.
4
It was then reported that some residents were unable to leave their homes because of the congestion caused by the bats.
5
Because they are a protected species, however, officials were forced to use nonlethal means of making the bats leave.
6
The officials resorted to smoke and noise to drive the bats away.
7
They also responded by cutting down trees inhabited by the bats, an approach that animal rights advocates criticized as unnecessary.
Also cut down trees.
8
Clearing trees is thought to have played a strong role in the decline of the flying fox population over the last century.
Clearing trees probably helped population decline.
Officials had to use nonlethal means to make the bats leave.
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Reading E: Mixed
6.
According to paragraph 3, animal rights activists have taken issue with which of the following means of driving flying foxes away?
Chapter 23
Fact. S7 discusses the particular actions that animal rights activists have taken issue with.
7
A
Calling a state of emergency
S3 mentions the state of emergency called in the particular case of Bateman’s Bay described in P3. But nothing in the passage suggests that this state of emergency upset any animal rights activists.
7
B
Blowing smoke at the bats
S6 mentions that this tactic was used by local officials. But the passage does not state that animal rights activists took issue.
7
C
Making noise near the bats
S6 mentions that this tactic was used by local officials. But the passage does not state that animal rights activists took issue.
3
D
Cutting down inhabited trees
Correct. S7: “They also responded by cutting down trees inhabited by the bats, an approach that animal rights advocates criticized as unnecessary.”
7
According to paragraph 3, which of the following is NOT described as a threat to the population of flying foxes in Australia?
Negative Fact. S1–2 discuss several threats to the flying fox population, and one threat is echoed in S7–8. Three answer choices will be within those sentences. One will not be.
3
A
Clotheslines in smaller towns
Correct. S3 mentions “clotheslines” in the town of Bateman’s Bay. But they are not described as a threat. Rather, a vast group of bats occupied those clotheslines.
7
B
Predators such as crocodiles
S2 notes that “threats to the flying fox include … natural predators such as eagles and crocodiles.”
7
C
Humans who feel annoyed or menaced
S2 notes that “threats to the flying fox include … human beings who perceive the bats as a nuisance or threat.”
7
D
Excessively high temperatures
S2 notes that “threats to the flying fox include extreme heat waves.”
23
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Chapter 23
8
The word “approach” in the passage is closest in meaning to
Vocabulary. “Approach” has many different meanings. In this context, it means “method or tactic.”
7
A
advance
In the context of physical movement, “approach” and “advance” can mean similar things. But that’s not the case here.
7
B
approximation
In the context of measurement, “approach” and “approximate” can mean similar things. But that’s not the case here.
7
C
introduction
In the context of social relations, “approach” and “introduce” can mean similar or at least related things. But that’s not the case here.
3
D
tactic
Correct. “They also responded by cutting down trees … an approach that animal rights advocates criticized” = they cut down trees, a tactic that animal rights advocates criticized.
9
23
Reading E: Mixed
According to paragraph 3, why were officials obliged to use nonlethal methods to make the bats in Bateman’s Bay go away?
Fact. S5 indicates why the officials used nonlethal methods with the flying foxes.
3
A
As a species, the flying fox is protected.
Correct. S5: “Because they are a protected species, however, officials were forced to use nonlethal means of making the bats leave.”
7
B
Some inhabitants of the town could not leave their homes.
S4 notes that some residents were indeed unable to leave their homes. But this fact is not given as a reason that nonlethal means were necessary.
7
C
The bats occupied both trees and clotheslines.
S3 states that the bats did occupy these places. But this fact is not given as a reason for the use of nonlethal methods.
7
D
Smoke and noise were ineffective in driving off the bats.
It’s true that the officials did not only make use of smoke and noise. They also cut down trees. But that doesn’t mean that the smoke and noise were ineffective. Maybe they were very effective, but they had bad side effects for the humans living nearby.
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Reading E: Mixed
P4
Paragraph 4
Chapter 23
Comments
S1
There are also other reasons why people have viewed the bats negatively.
Other reasons for negative views of bats.
2
For instance, the bats were recently discovered to carry a handful of viruses, and although only one has been shown to be directly transmissible to humans, the discovery of these viruses has contributed to the perception that flying foxes are dangerous.
Example: viruses they carry.
3
They are occasionally killed purposefully as a result of this perception, despite the legal protection flying foxes receive.
Sometimes they are killed on purpose for this reason.
4
Another situation in which humans perceive flying foxes as threats is in regions of cultivated crops, such as orchards.
Also: threat to crops.
5
Though the bats reputedly only feast on such crops when faced with a scarcity of native, wild food sources, people living in such places have sought to destroy their roosts.
People living there have sought to destroy bat roosts (= gathering places).
10.
In paragraph 4, why does the author state that only one virus has been shown to be directly transmissible to humans?
Purpose. S2 mentions this fact.
7
A
To demonstrate that people can be entirely irrational in the face of perceived threats
“Entirely irrational” is too extreme. The author is not implying that there is absolutely no reason to fear virus transmission from these bats.
3
B
To describe the danger of the bats as at least partly a matter of perception
Correct. S2 states that “the bats were recently discovered to carry a handful of viruses, and although only one has been shown to be directly transmissible to humans, the discovery of these viruses has contributed to the perception that flying foxes are dangerous.” The “although” indicates that the author concedes the point about the one transmissible virus but still stands by his or her primary claim: that is, the discovery has contributed to the perception that the bats are dangerous.
7
C
To surface the hidden but deadly threat that flying foxes pose to humans who live nearby
The author is not sounding the alarm by mentioning the risk of this one virus (which may or may not be deadly). The author admits that there is at least one danger. But the author’s larger point is that the discovery of these viruses has at least partially fed into the perception that the bats are dangerous.
7
D
To assert that the bats are only dangerous if a virus is directly transmissible
The author does not express an opinion on whether this is the only way that the flying fox can be dangerous.
23
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Chapter 23
11.
23
Reading E: Mixed
Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in the passage? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.
Simplify Sentence. The first part of S3 notes that flying foxes are sometimes killed on purpose because of the way they are perceived (namely, as dangerous). The second part of S3 states that this killing happens despite legal protection for the flying foxes.
7
A
Despite a lack of legal protection, flying foxes are rarely killed on purpose, because they are unlikely to be perceived as threatening.
The original sentence states nearly the opposite.
7
B
The legal protection of flying foxes does little to protect them, since they are often viewed as threats and deliberately killed.
The fact that people sometimes do not follow the rules does not mean the rules “do little.” Moreover, this version uses “often” for “viewed … and killed,” but the original sentence states that the bats are “occasionally killed.”
7
C
The reason that flying foxes are threatened and at times killed deliberately is the legal protection the bats receive.
This version mistakes the concept of “threat” in S3 (and in S2). These sentences do not discuss the threatened status of the flying foxes. Rather, they point out that the flying foxes themselves can be perceived as threats to humans. Moreover, the original sentence does not claim that the bats’ legal protection is actually the reason they are sometimes killed. Rather, they are killed because of the perceived threat.
3
D
Although protected, flying foxes are sometimes killed because of people’s misunderstanding.
Correct. This version captures the meaning of the original with little distortion.
12.
The word “cultivated” in the passage is closest in meaning to
Vocabulary. “Cultivate” = grow carefully, farm, nurture, develop.
7
A
refined
In social contexts, “cultivated” and “refined” can be synonymous ways to characterize a person with a lot of education and taste. But with regard to agriculture, they have distinct meanings.
7
B
valued
Something that is “valued” (considered important or cherished) might be cultivated, but these terms are not necessarily related.
3
C
nurtured
Correct. “Regions of cultivated crops” = regions of nurtured crops, crops that people grow or look after with care.
7
D
reaped
“Reap” = harvest, gather in. The point of cultivating crops is eventually to reap them (or their fruit, in the case of orchards). But “cultivate” and “reap” are not synonyms.
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Reading E: Mixed
P3
Paragraph 3
S1
The clearing away of flying fox habitats for development is one cause of their population decline.
2
A In addition to the loss of foraging habitat, threats to the
flying fox include extreme heat waves, natural predators such as eagles and crocodiles, and human beings who perceive the bats as a nuisance or threat. 3–4
B Recently, in the New South Wales town of Bateman’s Bay,
thousands of flying foxes descended into the trees and clotheslines, leading the town to call a state of emergency and commit 2.5 million Australian dollars (about 1.8 million United States dollars) toward scattering the bats. It was then reported that some residents were unable to leave their homes because of the congestion caused by the bats. 5–7
C Because they are a protected species, however, officials were
forced to use nonlethal means of making the bats leave. The officials resorted to smoke and noise to drive the bats away. They also responded by cutting down trees inhabited by the bats, an approach that animal rights advocates criticized as unnecessary.
8
D Clearing trees is thought to have played a strong role in the
decline of the flying fox population over the last century.
Chapter 23
Comments
No infestation has been introduced by the end of S1.
Likewise, no infestation has been introduced by the end of S2.
Correct. The “infestation” is one of flying foxes in a particular town. The story begins in S3. In S4, the severity of the infestation is given a benchmark: some people could not leave their homes. The new sentence, with its “In fact” opener, builds on that idea, giving another extreme milestone: some local businesses had to close for several days.
23
Insertion here puts the new idea too late in the story. “In fact”does not make sense, because the inserted sentence does not follow well at all from S7.
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Chapter 23
13.
Reading E: Mixed
In fact, the infestation was so severe that a number of local businesses were forced to close over the course of several days.
7
A
Choice A
7
B
Choice B
3
C
Choice C
7
D
Choice D
Whole Passage
Insert Text. The new sentence refers to “the infestation,” indicating that this infestation must have already been introduced (although maybe not with that word). By the point of the insertion, the story of the infestation must already be relatively far along. Moreover, the opening phrase “In fact” means that this sentence extends the thrust of the previous sentence. Since the new sentence discusses just how severe the infestation was, the prior sentence should state somehow that the infestation was severe.
Correct.
Comments
P1
The grey-headed fruit bat, also known as the flying fox, is one of the largest bats in Australia, with a wingspan of 1 meter (about 3.3 feet) ...
Flying fox = one of largest bats in Australia. Doesn’t resemble other bats. Uses sight rather than sound to navigate. Found on eastern coast. Dwells in large colonies. Most visible at dusk. Searches for food. Often flies long distances for food.
P2
Because of their declining population, as well as their role in the maintenance of a healthy ecosystem that relies on their dispersal of the seeds of native trees and the pollination of flowers, flying foxes are designated a “vulnerable species” ...
Population is declining. They help maintain healthy ecosystems. So flying foxes are a “vulnerable species.” Now protected under law. Used to be millions of them. Now only ~600,000. Has an essential role in subtropical rainforests.
P3
The clearing away of flying fox habitats for development is one cause of their population decline ...
One cause of population decline = clearing habitats. Other threats, including humans. Example of flying fox invasion in one town. Officials had to use nonlethal means to make the bats leave. Also cut down trees. Clearing trees probably helped population decline.
P4
There are also other reasons why people have viewed the bats negatively ...
Other reasons for negative views of bats. Example: viruses they carry. Sometimes they are killed on purpose for this reason. Also: threat to crops. People living there have sought to destroy bat roosts (= gathering places).
23
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Reading E: Mixed
14.
A strikingly large bat that lives in Australia, the flying fox is currently threatened.
Chapter 23
Summary. Correct answers must be clearly expressed in the passage. They must also be among the major points of the passage. They should tie as directly as possible to the summary given.
3
A
The flying fox plays a crucial role in maintaining the ecological balance of some subtropical ecosystems.
Correct. The important role that the flying fox plays in these ecosystems is described and emphasized in P2.
7
B
Of all Australian bats, the flying fox has the largest wingspan, and it also has unusually large eyes.
These facts are mentioned in P1, but only to provide some concrete details about the animal subject of the passage. They are not major ideas.
3
C
A major reason for the bat’s declining population is habitat destruction, including that caused by humans perceiving a threat.
Correct. This point is the major theme in P3.
7
D
The flying fox feeds on both nectar and fruit and is known to travel long distances in search of food.
These details are merely background facts in the context of this passage.
3
E
Organizations at multiple levels of government, including internationally, have taken action to protect the flying fox.
Correct. This point, made in P2, is central to the narrative of the passage.
7
F
Among bats, the flying fox is especially dangerous since it carries viruses that are transmissible to humans.
Unsupported by the text. P4 mentions that the flying fox does carry one virus transmissible to humans. But the emphasis of the passage is not on any danger these bats may pose. Rather, the passage focuses on the danger to the bats.
23
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Chapter 23
Reading E: Mixed
Answers and Explanations—23.8 Iodine Deficiency P1
Comments
S1
The human body requires regular intake of certain “micronutrients” to develop and function properly.
2
The body needs fairly small quantities of these vitamins and minerals, yet their absence can lead to serious disease.
3
Scurvy, for example, which is caused by lack of vitamin C, was once common among sailors.
4
Bringing citrus fruits to eat on long voyages proved to be an effective cure.
5
While our ability to prevent micronutrient deficiencies has greatly increased over the past two centuries, these diseases continue to cause problems in isolated or impoverished areas.
1.
23
Paragraph 1
The word “isolated” in the passage is closest in meaning to
Humans need micronutrients to be healthy.
Example of a disease caused by lack of vitamins.
We are better at preventing these diseases, but they are still problems.
Vocabulary. “Isolated” = remote, out of the way, far away from other things.
7
A
poor
“Isolated” and “poor” are not synonyms. “Poor” is the same as “impoverished.”
3
B
remote
Correct. “Problems in isolated … areas” = problems in remote areas.
7
C
vast
Unrelated. “Vast” = large, immense, or a very great quantity.
7
D
central
Opposite. In terms of location, “central” could either mean physically located at the center, accessible from most places, or highly important.
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Reading E: Mixed
2.
It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that impoverished communities
Chapter 23
Inference. S5 discusses issues facing some impoverished communities.
7
A
are always isolated
The word “or” in S5 makes it clear that these two characteristics don’t always go hand in hand.
3
B
may lack access to micronutrients
Correct. S5 states that diseases caused by micronutrient deficiencies “continue to cause problems in isolated or impoverished areas.” That means that people living in these areas do not get enough micronutrients in their diet. So they may lack access.
7
C
have caused the spread of micronutrient deficiencies around the globe
These communities face problems of micronutrient deficiencies. However, micronutrient deficiencies do not appear to be something that could spread, such as a disease, and there is no indication they are causing this in other parts of the world
7
D
have a relatively low incidence of scurvy
If anything, you might guess that scurvy would occur more often in impoverished communities, which may lack access to micronutrients. The lack of the micronutrient vitamin C causes scurvy, according to S3.
P2
Paragraph 2
Comments
S1
Iodine deficiency has been a public health problem throughout human history.
Iodine is a micronutrient whose absence causes health problems.
2
Lack of iodine in the diet can cause goiter (the swelling of the thyroid gland) and hypothyroidism (low production of thyroid hormone), which lead to fatigue, depression, and weight gain.
Symptoms and effects of iodine deficiency.
3
Iodine deficiency is also a principal cause of preventable mental handicaps.
4
Children who consume a low-iodine diet may suffer from stunted growth, loss of hearing, or difficulty standing and walking; they may also experience an intelligence quotient, or IQ, reduction of 10 to 15 points.
5
Descriptions of diseases caused by iodine deficiency occur in ancient Chinese, Roman, and Egyptian texts.
6
The ancient Chinese even successfully treated goiter by consuming seaweed, which is high in iodine.
7
However, the connection between these diseases and lack of iodine was not made until the nineteenth century.
23
These diseases have an ancient history.
But connection wasn’t understood until the 19th century.
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Chapter 23
3.
Reading E: Mixed
The word “principal” in the passage is closest in meaning to
Vocabulary. “Principal” = primary, main, major.
7
A
original
Unrelated. “Principal” has nothing to do with whether something was an original (the initial model or occurrence).
7
B
known
Something that is “principal” might be well known, but these terms are unrelated definitionally.
3
C
chief
Correct. “Iodine deficiency is also a principal cause of preventable mental handicaps” = iodine deficiency is also a chief or main cause of these handicaps.
7
D
common
Not quite. “Common” and “principal” aren’t synonyms. Something could be a common cause of a problem but not a principal cause, and vice versa.
4.
Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in the passage? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.
Simplify Sentence. The first part of S4 describes the physical damage that can be caused to children who lack iodine. The second part of the sentence describes the mental damage these children may suffer.
7
A
People who consume more iodine from childhood through adulthood tend to perform better on tests of mental acuity.
Nothing in the original sentence discusses adulthood. Moreover, this version leaves out any mention of physical damage to children with low-iodine diets.
7
B
Deafness in children, as well as other physical and neurological damage, is primarily caused by iodine deficiency.
“Primarily” makes this choice too strongly worded.
7
C
Some aspects of mental capacity can be measured using an intelligence quotient, or IQ, test.
This point may be true. But it is not actually in the original sentence, and it misses the core of that sentence.
3
D
Not eating enough iodine as a child can have a negative impact on physical and mental health.
Correct. This summary leaves out many specific details of the conditions caused by iodine deficiency. But it captures the gist of S4.
23
5.
All of the following are mentioned in p aragraph 2 as symptoms of iodine deficiency EXCEPT:
Negative Fact. Symptoms (observable health effects) of iodine deficiency are listed throughout P2. Three answer choices will be contained in P2. One will not be.
3
A
swollen limbs
Correct. No mention is made of swollen limbs in P2.
7
B
partial or complete deafness
S4 mentions “loss of hearing.”
7
C
excessive tiredness
S2 mentions “fatigue.”
7
D
increased weight
S2 mentions “weight gain.”
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Reading E: Mixed
P3
Paragraph 3
Chapter 23
Comments
S1
Iodine was discovered accidentally in 1811 by a French chemist named Bernard Courtois.
2
While making sodium salts, he observed a purple vapor rising from seaweed ash.
3
Other scientists continued to study this substance, which was officially identified and named in 1813.
4
Soon after, a Swiss doctor noted that administering iodine to patients with a goiter reduced the swelling of the thyroid.
Soon after, iodine was used to reduce thyroid swelling.
5
By the 1850s, scientists hypothesized that iodine deficiency was associated with thyroid disorders.
1850s: hypothesis of connection.
6
This theory was confirmed at the end of the century, when iodine was discovered within the thyroid gland.
Theory was confirmed at the end of the century.
6.
According to the passage, iodine was definitively linked to thyroid disorders when
Discovery of iodine in 1811.
Fact. “Definitively” indicates that the question is focused on when this link was fully proved.
7
A
purple vapor was observed rising from burned seaweed
S2 mentions this occurrence. But the link was definitively made later.
3
B
the thyroid gland was discovered to contain iodine
Correct. S6: “This theory was confirmed at the end of the century, when iodine was discovered within the thyroid gland.”
7
C
a Swiss doctor administered iodine to patients with goiters
As described in S4, this use of iodine strengthened the idea of a possible connection between iodine and thyroid disorders. But even afterward, as noted in S5 the connection was still just a hypothesis.
7
D
the substance was officially identified and named
S3 mentions this occurrence. But the link was definitively made later.
23
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Chapter 23
Reading E: Mixed
P4
Paragraph 4
Comments
S1
Prior to these discoveries, iodine deficiency was common in remote, mountainous areas, such as rural Switzerland, the Appalachian Mountains, and the Pacific Northwest.
Iodine deficiency used to be a common problem in certain remote areas.
2
As early as 1830, nutritional scientists suggested that adding iodine to table salt could help to prevent iodine deficiency in these areas.
Iodized salt was suggested as a solution.
3
Salt was chosen because it does not spoil and is consumed by most people in relatively predictable amounts.
4
Still, iodized salt was not widely distributed in the United States and Europe until the 1920s.
Adding iodine to salt was adopted as a practice in the US and Europe in the 1920s.
5
Today, over 90 percent of households in the United States have access to iodized salt, and iodine deficiency is relatively rare in most affluent nations.
Now, iodine deficiency is rare in affluent nations.
7.
Which of the following statements about people in the Appalachian Mountains can be inferred from paragraph 4 and earlier paragraphs?
23
Inference. The Appalachian Mountains are mentioned in S1. The mention of earlier paragraphs indicates that some knowledge from one of those paragraphs may be required for the answer. But typically this required knowledge is very limited in scope.
7
A
Their culture was similar to that of people living in the Swiss Alps.
This choice makes unwarranted assumptions. Somehow these places are similar, but not necessarily in their culture.
7
B
Once they settled there, they had no contact with outside influences.
Too extreme. This choice exaggerates the meaning of “remote.”
3
C
They may have suffered from a high incidence of goiter.
Correct. Since iodine deficiency was common, the diseases it causes would also likely be common. Goiter is a disease caused by iodine deficiency, as both P2 and P3 mention.
7
D
It is likely that they did not eat enough salt.
Salt wasn’t yet iodized in the time referred to in S1 (“prior to these discoveries”). So eating salt would have been irrelevant to this issue.
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Reading E: Mixed
8.
Chapter 23
According to paragraph 4, what is one reason for choosing to add iodine to salt?
Fact. S3 indicates reasons why iodine was added to salt (as opposed to other foodstuffs).
7
A
Salt is chemically similar to iodine.
There is no evidence for this statement in the passage.
7
B
Salt is popular in remote and mountainous areas.
Not supported by the passage.
7
C
Naturally occurring salt contains enough iodine for health purposes.
Contradicted by the passage. If salt already contained enough iodine, iodine wouldn’t need to be added.
3
D
People tend to eat fixed, known quantities of salt.
Correct. S3: “Salt was chosen because it … is consumed by most people in relatively predictable amounts.”
P5
Paragraph 5
Comments But iodine deficiency is still an issue globally.
S1
However, iodine deficiency remains a global problem, affecting nearly 200 million people each year.
2
Incidence of severe iodine deficiency is actually on the rise.
3
In 2013, 2,700 people died from iodine deficiency—an increase from 2,100 in 2010.
4
While iodine deficiency has long been a problem in the developing world, reduction in salt intake and changes in the processing of milk products have also led to decreases in iodine consumption in more developed countries like Australia and New Zealand.
In developed countries, people are also consuming less salt.
5
Iodine deficiency is a particularly serious problem for pregnant women, because it can have adverse effects on the development of the fetus.
A particular problem for pregnant women.
23
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Chapter 23
9.
Reading E: Mixed
In paragraph 5, why does the author mention changes in the processing of milk products?
Purpose. S4 mentions this change.
7
A
To illustrate further the positive impact of iodized salt
S4 mentions “reduction in salt intake” as leading to decreases in iodine consumption. But it is something of a stretch to call this mention a further illustration of the positive impact of iodized salt. Moreover, this “reduction in salt intake” is not what the question asks about, but rather the changes in processing of milk products, which may have nothing to do with iodized salt.
7
B
To provide evidence for the decrease of iodine-related illness in developed countries
If anything, iodine-related illness is likely to be on the rise in developed countries, because of the decline in iodine consumption in these places (mentioned in S4).
7
C
To highlight an unintended consequence of improved public health measures
The decline in iodine consumption in developed countries qualifies as an “unintended consequence.” But the passage does not indicate that the changes in milk processing are “improved public health measures.” They may or may not be.
3
D
To help explain the decline in the consumption of iodine in developed countries
Correct. S4 notes that “reduction in salt intake and changes in the processing of milk products have also led to decreases in iodine consumption in more developed countries like Australia and New Zealand.” That is, these changes in milk processing “have also led to” the declines in iodine consumption in developed countries.
The word “adverse” in the passage is closest in meaning to
Vocabulary. “Adverse” = negative, harmful, bad.
23
10. 3
A
detrimental
Correct. “It can have adverse effects” = it can have detrimental or negative effects.
7
B
permanent
While some negative effects might be “permanent” (lasting or indefinite), these words do not mean the same thing.
7
C
pronounced
While some negative effects might be “pronounced” (highly noticeable, marked, or obvious), these words do not mean the same thing.
7
D
unforeseen
While some negative effects might be “unforeseen” (not predicted or anticipated), these words do not mean the same thing.
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Reading E: Mixed
P6
Chapter 23
Paragraph 6
Comments
S1
Since the mid-1980s, the World Health Organization, in partnership with UNICEF and other organizations, has led the fight against iodine deficiency—primarily by promoting the use of iodized salt.
Various groups have promoted the use of iodized salt to combat iodine deficiency.
2
However, excessive consumption of iodine can also lead to health problems (in particular, hyperthyroidism, or the overproduction of thyroid hormone).
But consuming too much iodine can also cause problems.
11.
Why is hyperthyroidism mentioned in paragraph 6?
Fact. S2 mentions hyperthyroidism in parentheses.
3
A
To point out a way in which ingesting too much iodine can be a problem
Correct. S2 states that the “excessive consumption of iodine can also lead to health problems (in particular, hyperthyroidism, or the overproduction of thyroid hormone).” Here, “hyperthyroidism” is given as an example of a problem caused by too much iodine in the diet.
7
B
To reinforce the importance of combating iodine deficiency
Hyperthyroidism is a health problem, according to S2.
7
C
To exemplify a problem the World Health Organization has successfully addressed
According to S1, the World Health Organization is addressing the opposite problem (iodine deficiency).
7
D
To argue against the use of iodized salt
The author is not suggesting that iodized salt not be consumed. The author is just pointing out a health problem on the other end of the spectrum of iodine use.
P7
Paragraph 7
23
Comments
S1
In mild cases of iodine deficiency, consumption of small amounts of iodine can be an effective remedy.
Mild iodine deficiency can be treated with iodine.
2
However, in more severe cases, iodine consumption can actually cause hyperthyroidism.
But severe cases cannot.
3
For this reason, prevention, rather than treatment, is the emphasis of most programs designed to combat iodine deficiency.
Prevention is important.
4
While there is still work to be done, progress made in the past century leaves many optimistic that, in the near future, diseases caused by iodine deficiency will join polio and smallpox on the list of maladies that are virtually extinct.
Many believe this disease can be eradicated.
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Chapter 23
12.
Reading E: Mixed
What is the author’s primary purpose in paragraph 7?
Purpose. S1–3 describe why prevention is most important to emphasize (rather than treatment). S4 provides an optimistic view toward the future: the history of progress in this area is encouraging many to believe the disease could be eradicated soon.
7
A
To demonstrate the severity of the iodine deficiency epidemic
Too extreme. Prior paragraphs indicate that iodine deficiency is unfortunately on the rise, but it is never categorized as an epidemic in those paragraphs, nor in P7.
7
B
To discuss the pros and cons of using iodized salt
Iodized salt is not even directly mentioned in this paragraph.
7
C
To praise international groups for their efforts to combat iodine deficiency
International groups are not mentioned specifically (as they are in the prior paragraph). So it is difficult to claim that this paragraph’s purpose is to praise them directly.
3
D
To provide arguments for continuing to work to prevent iodine deficiency
Correct. S1–3 argue for prevention, and S4 indicates that the finish line is near.
23
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Reading E: Mixed
P1
Paragraph 1
S1–2
The human body requires regular intake of certain “micronutrients” to develop and function properly. The body needs fairly small quantities of these vitamins and minerals, yet their absence can lead to serious disease.
Chapter 23
Comments
3
A Scurvy, for example, which is caused by lack of vitamin C, was once common among sailors.
Insertion here doesn’t work. No specific “common micronutrient deficiency” has been mentioned yet.
4
B Bringing citrus fruits to eat on long voyages proved to be an
The scurvy example has been introduced, but it has not been concluded. So the insertion of the new sentence breaks the logical link between S3 and S4.
effective cure.
C While our ability to prevent micronutrient deficiencies has
5
greatly increased over the past two centuries, these diseases continue to cause problems in isolated and impoverished areas.
End
13.
Correct. The scurvy example in S3–4 has concluded by this point. Moreover, insertion here does not break the link between S4 and S5, since this link was loose to begin with. S5 can easily accommodate another example in front.
23
This position is too late. The use of “another” requires the insertion to happen immediately after the scurvy example has been wrapped up in S4.
D
Anemia, or lack of iron, is a nother common micronutrient deficiency. 7
A
Choice A
7
B
Choice B
3
C
Choice C
7
D
Choice D
Insert Text. The use of the word “another” indicates that this new sentence should be inserted right after the mention of a first “common micronutrient deficiency.” At the same time, the insertion should not break the existing flow of logic.
Correct.
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Chapter 23
Reading E: Mixed
Whole Passage
23
Comments
P1
The human body requires regular intake of certain “micronutrients” to develop and function properly ...
Humans need micronutrients to be healthy. Example of a disease caused by lack of vitamins. We are better at preventing these diseases, but they are still problems.
P2
Iodine deficiency has been a public health problem throughout human history ...
Iodine is a micronutrient whose absence causes health problems. Symptoms and effects of iodine deficiency. These diseases have an ancient history. But connection wasn’t understood until the 19th century.
P3
Iodine was discovered accidentally in 1811 by a French chemist named Bernard Courtois ...
Discovery of iodine in 1811. Soon after, iodine was used to reduce thyroid swelling. 1850s: hypothesis of connection. Theory was confirmed at the end of the century.
P4
Prior to these discoveries, iodine deficiency was common in remote, mountainous areas, such as rural Switzerland, the Appalachian Mountains, and the Pacific Northwest ...
Iodine deficiency used to be a common problem in certain remote areas. Iodized salt was suggested as a solution. Adding iodine to salt was adopted as a practice in the US and Europe in the 1920s. Now, iodine deficiency is rare in affluent nations.
P5
However, iodine deficiency remains a global problem, affecting nearly 200 million people each year ...
But iodine deficiency is still an issue globally. In developed countries, people are also consuming less salt. A particular problem for pregnant women.
P6
Since the mid-1980s, the World Health Organization, in partnership with UNICEF and other organizations, has led the fight against iodine deficiency—primarily by promoting the use of iodized salt ...
Various groups have promoted the use of iodized salt to combat iodine deficiency. But consuming too much iodine can also cause problems.
P7
In mild cases of iodine deficiency, consumption of small amounts of iodine can be an effective remedy ...
Mild iodine deficiency can be treated with iodine. But severe cases cannot. Prevention is important. Many believe this disease can be eradicated.
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Reading E: Mixed
14.
An example of an important micronutrient is iodine, the deficiency of which has long been a public health concern around the world.
Chapter 23
Summary. Correct answers must be clearly expressed in the passage. They must also be among the major points of the passage. They should tie as directly as possible to the summary given.
3
A
In the early twentieth century, iodized salt was introduced as an effective way to combat iodine deficiency.
Correct. This use of iodized salt is the point of P4, and it is mentioned again in P6 as the primary weapon against iodine deficiency.
7
B
In 1811, iodine was discovered by a French chemist, who generated purple vapor by burning seaweed.
This is true according to S1-2 in P3. However, this detail is minor in the context of the passage.
3
C
Iodine deficiency can lead to severe health problems, such as goiter, hypothyroidism, and developmental difficulties.
Correct. This outline of the health consequences of iodine deficiency is the focus of P2.
7
D
Hyperthyroidism, caused by over consumption of iodine in the diet, results in the overproduction of thyroid hormone.
Over consumption of iodine is only mentioned as an aside at the end of P6.
7
E
People tend to consume regular amounts of salt, a food ingredient that does not spoil.
These facts are given in P4 as the reason why salt was chosen as the means of distributing iodine supplements. But in and of themselves, these facts are minor in the passage.
3
F
With the focus of public health efforts on prevention, society is well on its way to eradicating iodine deficiency.
Correct. This sentence summarizes P7.
23
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