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MCCQE Sample Questions MCCQE1

Questions 3001 - 3500

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3001. Retrolental fibroplasia is a complication of: a. chemotherapy b. hydrotherapy c. radiotherapy d. physiotherapy e. oxygen therapy 3002. Cardioversion may be indicated in the treatment of:

a. complete AV block b. digitalis toxicity c. atrial fibrillation d. multifocal atrial tachycardia e. repeated short lived tachycardias 3003. Parkinsonian side effects of phenothiazine are best treated with: a. haloperidol b. lorazepam (Ativan) c. chlordiazepoxide d. benztropine mesylate e. lithium carbonate 3004. The etiologic agent in molluscum contagiosum (painless /small/firm/umbilicated/white surface papules) is: a. RNA virus b. DNA virus (poxvirus) c. chlamydia trachomatis d. staphylococcus aureus e. papilloma virus 3005. Ruptured Baker's cyst (which causes a painful swelling of the popliteal fossa) is most to be seen in: a. osteoarthritis b. gout c. ankylosing spondylitis

d. rheumatoid arthritis e. psoriatic arthritis 3006. Heparin effect is neutralized by: a. warfarin sodium b. protamine sulphate c. phenylbutazone d. streptokinase e. tissue type plasminogen activator 3007. The most common breast tumor is: a. papillary carcinoma b. medullary carcinoma c. inflammatory carcinoma d. infiltrating ductal scirrhous carcinoma e. fibroadenoma 3008. Carcinoma of the prostate is treated with: a. tolazamide b. prednisone c. bromocriptine d. androgen e. estrogen 3009. Atropine poisoning is treated with: a. amitriptyline

b. epinephrine c. pilorocaprine d. neostigmine e. physostigmine 3010. Imipramine is indicated in treatment of following disorders, EXCEPT: a. acute panic disorder b. acute mania c. major depression d. enuresis e. cataplexy 3011. Sprengel's deformity is a congenital elevation of: a. hip b. patella c. scapula d. sternum e. clavicle 3012. 7 year old boy presents with right upper thigh and right knee pain when walking, the most likely diagnosis is: a. Kohler's disease b. Osgood Schlatter's disease c. Legg Calve Perths' disease d. congenital dislocation of the hip

e. slipped capital femoral epiphysis 3013. Osteogenesis imperfecta (brittle bones) is NOT associated with: a. deafness b. tall stature c. blue sclerae d. bone fragility e. skull deformity 3014. Regarding osteoarthritis, which of the following is TRUE? a. usually affects small joints b. more common in men than in women c. joint pain is precipitated by exertion d. more common in thin and athletic people e. onset is generally before 40 years of age 3015. 3 months after a measles infection, a 7 year old boy develops seizures, the most likely diagnosis is: a. phenylketonuria b. subarachnoid hemorrhage c. benign febrile seizures d. maple syrup urine disease e. subacute sclerosing panencephalitis 3016. 12 year old boy presents with fever and bilateral parotid enlargement, the most likely diagnosis is: a. mumps

b. sarcoidosis c. typhoid fever d. acute leukemia e. mixed (pleomorphic) tumor of parotid 3017. Hypertension is most likely to be associated with: a. mastocytosis b. Addison's disease c. cardiac tamponade d. carcinoid syndrome e. Recklinghausen's disease (neurofibromatosis) 3018. Short PR interval and normal QRS interval without a delta wave are seen in: a. hypokalemia b. hypermagnesemia c. first degree heart block d. Lown-Ganong-Levine syndrome e. Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome 3019. A baby turns blue whenever stops crying, the most likely diagnosis is: a. lung abscess b. cystic fibrosis c. mitral stenosis

d. choanal atresia e. tetralogy of Fallot 3020. Which of the following should be ruled out in a 15 year old boy with gynecomastia? a. Down's syndrome b. Edward's syndrome c. Turner's syndrome d. fragile X syndrome e. Klinefelter's syndrome 3021. Children with pectus excavatum (funnel breast) are most likely to develop: a. kyphosis b. sarcoidosis c. osteosarcoma d. cystic hygroma e. achondroplasia 3022. X-ray of lateral neck of a 6 year old child shows thumb-print sign, the most likely diagnosis is: a. croup b. epiglottitis c. cystic fibrosis d. bronchial asthma e. epiglottal cancer 3023. Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis) is:

a. most commonly caused by fungus b. associated with inspiratory stridor c. usually occur in ages 10 to 15 years d. more common in males than in females e. characterized by high fever for 3 days 3024. A man with barrel-chest and a long history of shortness of breath on exertion, the most likely diagnosis is: a. emphysema b. pneumothorax c. bronchial asthma d. bronchial cancer e. iron deficiency anemia 3025. The best test for a child with pneumonia, nasal polyps and meconium ileus is: a. sweat test b. Guthrie test c. secretin test d. nasal challenge test e. glucose tolerance test Sample questions 3001 to 3025 of 9515

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3026. Giant cell pneumonia is most likely to occur following: a. mumps b. rabies c. tetanus d. measles e. impetigo 3027. Half-and-half nails (white proximal half and pink or brown distal half) is most likely to occur in: a. psoriasis b. hepatic cirrhosis c. respiratory disease d. iron deficiency anemia e. renal disease with azotemia 3028. Risk factors for developing acute renal failure include: a. jaundice b. anesthesia c. increased age d. ECF volume contraction e. all of the above 3029. Which of the following is LEAST likely to occur in endstage renal failure?

a. anemia b. hematuria c. proteinuria d. hypertension e. large kidney size 3030. SIADH is associated with: a. oat cell carcinoma b. thymoma c. pneumonia d. encephalitis e. all of the above 3031. SIADH is associated with: a. Hodgkin's disease b. tuberculosis c. brain tumor d. head trauma e. all of the above 3032. Regarding Q fever, which of the following is TRUE? a. is a rickettsial disease b. caused by coxiella brunetii c. spread mainly by inhalation d. has an incubation period of 1 to 3 weeks

e. all of the above 3033. Patients with hepatitis B virus (HBV) may develop: a. polyarteritis nodosa b. hepatocellular carcinoma c. serum sickness-type syndrome d. membranous glomerulonephritis e. all of the above 3034. Regarding hepatitis B virus (HBV), which of the following is TRUE? a. incubation period is between 20 to 30 days b. individuals with HBsAg are highly infectious c. about 60% of infected patients become chronic carriers d. the incidence peaks in the 15 to 19 year old age groups e. all of the above 3035. Regarding hepatitis A virus (HAV), which of the following is FALSE? a. mortality rate is less than 0.1% b. diagnosis is based on serologic tests c. incubation period is between 2 to 6 weeks d. patients are most infectious prior to or during the icteric stage e. the finding of IgG anti-HAV antibodies indicates recent infection 3036. HTVL-1 and 2 are most likely to cause:

a. erythema infectiosum b. Creutzfeld-Jakob disease c. infectious mononucleosis d. T cell leukemia and lymphoma e. decreased CD4 cells and immunosuppression 3037. Regarding molluscum contagiosum, which of the following is FALSE? a. rare in children b. caused by poxvirus c. nodules are usually painless d. treated with liquid nitrogen e. spread by contact or sexual intercourse 3038. Subcutaneous nodule at injury site with associated nodular lymphangitis which appears up to 6 months is seen in: a. carbuncle b. candidiasis c. blastomycosis d. sporotrichosis e. scalded skin syndrome 3039. Dinner fork deformity is associated with: a. Mallet's finger b. Colles' fracture c. Smith's fracture

d. Gamekeeper's fracture e. Dupuytren's contracture 3040. The most common wrist fracture in young adults is: a. hamate fracture b. pisiform fracture c. capitate fracture d. trapezium fracture e. scaphoid (navicular) fracture 3041. Ulna is fractured in (nightstick fracture) and in: a. Pott's fracture b. Boxer's fracture c. Mallet's fracture d. Bennett's fracture e. Monteggia's fracture 3042. Roseola infantum (exanthema subitum) is caused by: a. Epstein-Barr virus b. cytomegalovirus (CMV) c. varicella-zoster virus d. herpes simplex virus (HSV) e. human herpesvirus-6 (HHV-6) 3043. Following could be caused by Epstein-Barr virus, EXCEPT: a. Alport's syndrome

b. Burkitt's lymphoma c. acute mononucleosis d. chronic fatigue syndrome e. nasopharyngeal carcinoma 3044. Which of the following has been reported to be associated with Guillain Barre syndrome? a. helicobacter pylori b. campylobacter jejuni c. klebsiella pneumonia d. borrelia burgdorferi e. pseudomonas aeruginosa 3045. Which of the following viruses is associated with hepatoma? a. HPV b. RSV c. EBV d. HIV e. HBV 3046. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalitis (PML) is caused by: a. HIV b. EBV c. RSV d. JC virus e. adenovirus

3047. Weakness of knee extension is caused by lesion at: a. L3-L4 b. L4-L5 c. L5-S1 d. S1-S2 e. S2-S3 3048. Weakness of knee flexion is caused by lesion at: a. L3-L4 b. L4-L5 c. L5-S1 d. S1-S2 e. S2-S3 3049. Weakness of great toe flexion is caused by lesion at: a. L3-L4 b. L4-L5 c. L5-S1 d. S1-S2 e. S2-S3 3050. Weakness of great toe extension is caused by lesion at: a. L3 b. L4 c. L5 d. S1

e. S2 Sample questions 3026 to 3050 of 9515

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3051. Virus most commonly involved in pleurodynia, myocarditis and pericarditis is: a. adenovirus b. mumps virus c. coronavirus d. coxsackievirus B e. respiratory syncytial virus 3052. Virus most commonly involved in pharyngitis is: a. adenovirus b. mumps virus c. coronavirus d. cytomegalovirus e. respiratory syncytial virus 3053. The most common cause of granulomatous cervical lymphadenopathy in children is mycobacterium:

a. marinum b. kansasii c. fortuitum d. scrofulaceum e. avium-intercellulare 3054. Goats and sheep are most likely to transmit: a. yersinia b. brucella c. schistosoma d. giardia lamblia e. pasteurella multocida 3055. Hansen's disease is diagnosed by: a. Ham's test b. Frei's test c. Coomb's test d. Lepromin test e. Schirmer test 3056. Infants with cyanosis, respiratory distress, drooling saliva,choking and regurgitation immediately after birth is most commonly due to: a. tetralogy of Fallot b. aspiration pneumonia c. hyaline membrane disease d. bronchial asthma

e. esophageal atresia 3057. Following are contraindications for live measles vaccine, EXCEPT: a. antineoplastic and steroid therapy b. mitral stenosis c. allergy to neomycin d. immunodeficiency disorders e. systemic malignancy 3058. Following are absolute contraindications to further pertussis vaccination, EXCEPT: a. high fever b. collapse state c. encephalopathy d. unusual high-pitched cry e. family history of seizures 3059. Which of the following is a familial disorder of Hartnup's disease characterized by hypercalcemia and nephrocalcinosis? a. cretinism b. alkaptonuria c. Wilson's disease d. blue-diaper syndrome e. progressive muscular dystrophy 3060. Mentally retarded child with protruding belly,large head,membranous corneal veil,thick lips and tongue,the most likely diagnosis is: a. congenital hypothyroidism

b. Down's syndrome c. gargoylism d. Wilson's disease e. progressive muscular dystrophy 3061. Following are side effects of estrogen therapy, EXCEPT: a. nausea b. headache c. weight loss d. breast tenderness e. menstrual bleeding 3062. Following are absolute contraindications for renal biopsy, EXCEPT: a. hydronephrosis b. nephrotic syndrome c. bleeding diathesis d. renal hemangioma or tumor e. renal abscess or large cysts 3063. Which of the following is contraindicated in the management of acute pancreatitis? a. atropine b. meperidine c. morphine d. calcium sulphate e. serum albumin 3064. A pregnant woman with vaginal bleeding and cramps but her

pregnancy continues, the most likely diagnosis is: a. inevitable abortion b. incomplete abortion c. missed abortion d. threatened abortion e. complete abortion 3065. In polycystic ovary syndrome (Stein Leventhal syndrome): a. both FSH/LH are increased b. FSH is normal/LH is increased c. FSH is increased/LH is normal d. both FSH/LH are decreased e. none of the above 3066. Oliguria is associated with: a. renal tubular acidosis b. Fanconi's syndrome c. lithium therapy d. hypercalcemia e. congestive heart failure 3067. Which of the following is/are NOT seen in hemolytic uremic syndrome? a. anuria/oliguria with acute renal failure b. thrombocytopenia/hemolysis c. hematuria/edema/hypertension d. positive Coombs test

e. anemia/fragmented WBCs/fibrin deposition in kidneys 3068. The most common cause of empyema is: a. staphylococcus aureus b. streptococcus pyogenes c. escherichia coli d. pneumococcus (streptococcus) pneumoniae e. pseudomonas aeruginosa 3069. Major depression with melancholia may be diagnosed by: a. CT scan of the head b. electroencephalography c. X ray of the head d. dexamethasone suppression test e. none of the above 3070. Alkaptonuria (ochronosis) is due to deficiency of the enzyme: a. cytathionine synthase b. fructose 1 phosphatase c. homogentisic oxidase d. alpha L iduronidase e. acid lipase 3071. Self examination of the breast should be advised to: a. postmenopausal women only b. nulliparous women only c. women with history of mammary dysplasia only

d. all women over age 50 only e. all women over age 30 3072. Following are common psychiatric disorders seen in the elderly, EXCEPT: a. schizophrenia b. depression c. hypochondria d. anxiety e. paranoid ideation 3073. Following are characteristics of ketoacidosis (ketosis/acidosis in IDDM), EXCEPT: a. hypernatremia b. rapid deep breathing c. low arterial blood pH d. low plasma bicarbonate e. hyperglycemia/hypotension 3074. Cheilosis is particularly common in association with deficiency of: a. thiamine (B1) b. niacin c. pantothenic acid d. riboflavin (B2) e. folic acid 3075. Which of following types of nails is most likely to be seen in patients with nephrotic syndrome/hypoalbuminemia? a. yellow nails

b. Mees' lines (transverse lines) c. Terry's nail (white proximal two thirds) d. Beau's lines (horizontal nail depression) e. Muehrcke's nails (two horizontal white stripes) Sample questions 3051 to 3075 of 9515

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3076. Sudden pain with rapidly scrotal enlargement, relieved by elevation of the scrotum is most likely to be caused by: a. spermatocele b. testicular torsion c. hydrocele d. acute epididymitis e. testicular neoplasm 3077. The progress of the disease in insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM) is best detected by: a. glucose tolerance test b. serum fructosamine c. glycosylated hemoglobin

d. ketonuria e. glycosuria 3078. Inpatients with pregnancy induced hypertension are usually treated with: a. reserpine or labetol b. clonidine or propanolol c. nifedipine or diazoxide d. hydralazine or methyldopa e. captopril or nitroprusside 3079. Chronic anal fissure is the most common cause of painful defecation and is LEAST likely to be associated with: a. constipation b. rectal bleeding c. pruritus ani d. sentinel pile e. hypertrophied papilla 3080. True statement regarding urinary tract infection UTI include: a. in neonates/infants is more common in girls than in boys b. after 5 years of age is more common in girls c. bacteriuria during adolescence is more common in boys d. the incidence of UTI in women decreases with age e. of all ages, UTI is more common in males than in females 3081. Long term schizophrenia is best treated with supportive psychotherapy combined with: a. benzodiazepine

b. lithium carbonate c. amphetamine d. phenothiazine e. naloxone 3082. The most common cause of hemoptysis in children is: a. lung cancer b. pneumonia c. foreign body d. pulmonary embolism e. bronchiectasis 3083. A bluish pigmentation spot over the lower back or buttocks of a dark skinned infant may suggest the diagnosis of: a. milia b. capillary hemangioma c. petechiae d. Mongolian spot e. lanugo 3084. Close personal contacts of patients with hepatitis A should receive: a. rifampin b. hepatitis B vaccine c. gamma globulin d. corticosteroids

e. none of the above 3085. Following are features of cretinism (juvenile hypothyroidism), EXCEPT: a. delayed bone age b. stippling of epiphysis on bone X ray c. pot belly with umbilical hernia d. increased serum cholesterol e. decreased serum TSH 3086. Following are associated with anorexia nervosa, EXCEPT: a. hypercholesterolemia b. osteoporosis c. hypercarotenemia d. tachycardia e. hypothermia 3087. The initial symptoms of Lyme disease are regional lymphadenopathy and: a. facial nerve palsy b. cardiac arrhythmia c. skin lesion d. back pain e. joint pain 3088. Intentionally avoiding thinking about disturbing problems, wishes, feelings, or experiences is called: a. dissociation

b. sublimation c. undoing d. splitting e. suppression 3089. Marjolin ulcer: a. is an advanced gastric ulcer b. occurs in secondary syphilis c. is a malignant intestinal lesion caused by trauma d. is a malignant skin lesion in a burn scar e. is a basal cell carcinoma in a burn scar 3090. The most common cause of dysphagia is: a. achalasia b. scleroderma c. esophageal varices d. esophageal carcinoma e. esophageal stricture 3091. 11 year old boy with reddish purple patches on the eyelids and rash over the dorsum of the hands, your diagnosis is: a. atopic dermatitis b. dermatomyositis c. psoriasis d. scleroderma e. dermatitis herpetiformis 3092. Approximately 40% of patients with coarctation of the aorta have:

a. tricuspid atresia b. mitral valve disease c. bicuspid aortic valve d. tetralogy of Fallot e. subclavian steal syndrome 3093. Whipple operation is used in surgical treatment of the carcinoma of: a. lung b. pancreas c. bladder d. spleen e. kidney 3094. Pulsus paradoxus (decreased systolic BP > 10mmHg during inspiration) is NOT a clinical feature of: a. pulmonary embolism b. hypovolemia c. myocarditis d. pericarditis e. asthma 3095. Following are associated with hirsutism (hypertrichosis), EXCEPT: a. Cushing's syndrome b. hyperprolactinemia c. congenital adrenal hyperplasia d. granulosa cell ovarian tumor

e. acromegaly 3096. Following are promoters of the absorption of iron, EXCEPT: a. gastric acid b. sugar c. alcohol d. cereals e. ascorbic acid 3097. The best investigation for a child with recurrent bronchiolitis, nasal polyps, malabsorption and failure to thrive is: a. bronchography b. pulmonary function tests c. blood gases d. sweat chloride test e. lung scan 3098. Following are risk factors for acute pancreatitis, EXCEPT: a. hyperparathyroidism b. family history of pancreatitis c. hypocalcemia d. thiazide diuretic therapy e. estrogen therapy 3099. Which of the following types of polyps of colon is usually a premalignant lesion? a. hyperplastic b. juvenile

c. adenomas d. inflammatory e. hamartomas 3100. The most common presentation of symptomatic Meckel's diverticulum is: a. vomiting b. abdominal pain c. abdominal distention d. painful rectal bleeding e. painless rectal bleeding Sample questions 3076 to 3100 of 9515

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3101. The first stage in dying patients is: a. anger b. acceptance

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c. bargaining d. denial e. depression 3102. A woman presents with serosanguinous discharge from the nipple, your diagnosis is: a. carcinoma b. mammary dysplasia c. fibroadenoma d. intraductal papilloma e. abscess 3103. The most useful investigation for a patient with flank pain, fever and hematuria is: a. liver biopsy b. muscle biopsy c. cystoscopy d. intravenous pyelogram e. urine culture 3104. Undescended testicles (cryptorchidism) usually descent: a. immediately after birth b. between second-fourth month of life c. during the first nine months of life d. between first-third year of life e. before one month of age 3105. The most common site of tinea versicolor is:

a. intertriginous areas b. face/scalp c. upper/lower extremities d. upper trunk/neck e. fingers/toes 3106. The first symptom of Paget's carcinoma of the breast is: a. bleeding b. superficial erosion c. ulceration d. itching/burning e. palpable mass 3107. Abortion is defined as termination of gestation before the: a. 5th week of pregnancy b. 10th week of pregnancy c. 15th week of pregnancy d. 20th week of pregnancy e. 25th week of pregnancy 3108. Pruritus is LEAST likely to be associated with: a. acne vulgaris b. pregnancy c. hyperthyroidism d. carcinoid syndrome e. cholestasis

3109. A swollen epididymis due to epididymitis is differentiated from testicular tumor initially by: a. X ray b. ultrasound c. technetium scan d. testicular biopsy e. none of the above 3110. Which of the following is contraindicated in treatment of digitalis induced tachyarrhythmia? a. potassium chloride b. phenytoin c. propanolol d. quinidine e. synchronized DC shock 3111. The first step in ophthalmoscopic examination is to look for: a. cloudiness of the vitreous b. disorders of the iris c. abnormalities in the aqueous d. red fundus reflection e. lesions on cornea 3112. In ovarian failure: a. both FSH/LH are increased b. FSH is normal/LH is increased c. FSH is increased/LH is normal

d. both FSH/LH are decreased e. none of the above 3113. Primary prevention includes: a. breast cancer screening b. INH prophylaxis of a positive tuberculin test c. genetic counseling d. Pap smear screening e. rehabilitation 3114. Following are features of Kawasaki syndrome (mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome), EXCEPT: a. generalized pruritus b. maculopapular red rash c. high fever d. peeling of the fingers e. angitis of coronary arteries 3115. Following are associated with hyperprolactinemia, EXCEPT: a. stress/sleep/depression b. hypothyroidism c. diabetes mellitus d. reserpine therapy e. nipple stimulation 3116. The first step in the management of ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm is: a. laparoscopy

b. blood cross match c. abdominal X ray d. electrocardiogram e. abdominal CT scan 3117. Following are side effects of isoniazid (INH), EXCEPT: a. central nervous system toxicity b. peripheral nervous system toxicity c. hepatotoxicity d. nephrotoxicity e. jaundice/skin rash 3118. Fine downy growth of hair over the shoulder and back of a newborn is called: a. lanugo b. capillary hemangioma c. petechiae d. vernix caseosa e. milia 3119. Acute orchitis (increased testicular size/erythema /fever) in adolescents is usually due to: a. leprosy b. schistosomiasis c. tuberculosis d. syphilis e. mumps

3120. The most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism (usually asymptomatic) is: a. carcinoma of one parathyroid gland b. carcinoma of all parathyroid glands c. adenoma of one parathyroid gland d. adenoma of all parathyroid glands e. hyperplasia of all parathyroid glands 3121. When verapamil IV (Isoptin) fails to treat paroxysmal atrial tachycardia, the drug of choice is: a. propanolol b. digoxin c. atropine d. procainamide e. lidocaine 3122. The most common complications of acute pancreatitis are: a. jaundice/blindness/psychosis b. intraperitoneal bleeding/DIC c. abscess/pseudocyst formation d. pleural effusion/atelectasis e. gastrointestinal bleeding/acute tubular necrosis 3123. In X-linked dominant disorders: a. both sexes are affected equally b. affected males have normal daughters but affected sons c. the trait is more severe in daughters than sons

d. affected male transmits the trait only to his daughters e. males are affected twice as often as females 3124. When one fragment of the bone is driven into the other side of fractured bone, this is called: a. comminuted fracture b. avulsion fracture c. impacted fracture d. compound fracture e. depressed fracture 3125. 70 year old man presents with a solitary midlateral pulsatile neck mass, the most likely diagnosis is: a. Graves' disease b. Hodgkin's disease c. Pancoast syndrome d. carotid body tumor e. sarcoidosis Sample questions 3101 to 3125 of 9515

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3126. The best treatment for hypernephroma is:

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a. preoperative chemotherapy/radical nephrectomy b. chemotherapy/radiotherapy c. preoperative irradiation/radical nephrectomy d. radical nephrectomy with chemotherapy e. radical nephrectomy with regional node dissection 3127. Following are disorders transmitted from human to human by sexual route, EXCEPT: a. hepatitis B b. toxoplasmosis c. codylomata lata d. codylomata acuminata e. molluscum contagiosum 3128. Following are features of seborrheic keratosis, EXCEPT: a. stuck on lesion b. autosomal dominant trait c. involvement of epidermis only d. superficial ulceration e. occurrence after 30 years of age 3129. Following are features of mania, EXCEPT: a. excessive spending b. aggressive behavior c. hypoactivity d. exhibitionistic behavior

e. reduction of sleep 3130. High calcium, high phosphorus, high or normal alkaline phosphatase and low parathyroid hormone are most likely seen in: a. osteoporosis b. osteomalacia c. hyperthyroidism d. hyperparathyroidism e. Paget's disease of the bone 3131. Keratoacanthoma closely resembles squamous cell carcinoma and is characterized by: a. very slow growth lesion b. very malignant lesion c. response to antibiotic therapy d. stuck on lesion e. central crater filled with keratin 3132. Which of the following medications is safely administered to pregnant women? a. isoniazid b. streptomycin c. metronidazole d. tetracycline e. cortisone 3133. The most common site of polyps of colon is: a. ascending colon

b. discending colon c. transverse colon d. cecum/ileo cecal area e. sigmoid/rectum 3134. The most common breast mass or lesion in 35 to 40 years old women is: a. Paget's disease b. mammary dysplasia (fibrocystic disease) c. fibroadenoma d. intraductal papilloma of the breast e. breast cancer 3135. Penicillin therapy in pregnant women with syphilis prevents congenital syphilis in: a. 10% of cases b. 30% of cases c. 50% of cases d. 70% of cases e. 90% of cases 3136. A positive Mantoux test means the patient: a. has silicosis and Pott's disease b. not necessarily has tuberculosis c. has disseminated (miliary) tuberculosis d. is taking isoniazide for active tuberculosis e. has tuberculosis complicated by Hodgkin's disease

3137. Which of the following was the cause of Black Death (a disease which killed 25 million Europeans 4 centuries ago)? a. brucella suis b. campylobacter c. yersinia pestis d. proteus vulgaris e. klebsiella pneumonia 3138. Which of the following is transmitted mainly by human lice? a. brucellosis b. listeriosis c. psittacosis d. leptospirosis e. relapsing fever 3139. Weil's syndrome is also known as: a. acute brucellosis b. ocular listeriosis c. chronic psittacosis d. chronic shigellosis e. icteric leptospirosis 3140. Lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly and anemia are most likely due to: a. schistosoma b. giardia lamblia c. trypanosoma cruzi

d. entamoeba histolytica e. visceral leishmaniasis 3141. Apical aneurysms of the heart, megaesophagus and megacolon are associated with infections due to: a. schistosoma b. giardia lamblia c. trypanosoma cruzi d. entamoeba histolytica e. visceral leishmaniasis 3142. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be transmitted by sexual contact? a. schistosoma b. giardia lamblia c. trypanosoma cruzi d. trichomonas vaginalis e. entamoeba histolytica 3143. Cellophane tape test is used in the diagnosis of: a. schistosoma b. tinea saginata c. toxicara canis d. trichuris trichiura (whipworm) e. enterbius vermicularis (pinworm) 3144. Down's syndrome has been linked to: a. Still's disease

b. Refsum's disease c. Briquet's disease d. Hodgkin's disease e. Alzheimer's disease 3145. Part of chromosome 5 is missing in: a. Turner's syndrome b. Cri-Du-Chat syndrome c. Huntington's syndrome d. Lesche Nyhan syndrome e. Wegener's granulomatosis 3146. Abnormal vision with refractory errors is diagnosed by: a. tonometry b. slit lamp c. cover test d. pinhole test e. all of the above 3147. Oliver's sign (tracheal tug) is positive in: a. pericarditis b. hiatal hernia c. aortic aneurysm d. esophageal reflux e. carotid body tumor 3148. Palpable mass in the right abdomen with absence of bowel sounds in the RLQ (Dance's sign) is pathognomonic for:

a. midgut volvulus b. intussusception c. congenital megacolon d. mesenteric artery obstruction e. hypertrophic pyloric stenosis 3149. 32 year old man presents with intermittent right lower quadrant pain and perirectal abscesses, the most likely diagnosis is: a. diverticulitis b. Crohn's disease c. acute appendicitis d. ulcerative colitis e. carcinoma of colon 3150. In patients with fat embolism syndrome, petechiae are found in: a. 5 to 10% b. 20 to 30% c. 30 to 40% d. 50 to 60% e. 80 to 90% Sample questions 3126 to 3150 of 9515

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3151. HLA A3, B7, and B18 are associated with: a. Reiter's disease b. myasthenia gravis c. multiple sclerosis d. chronic active hepatitis e. gluten-sensitive enteropathy 3152. Human leukocyte antigen B8 (HLA B8) is associated with: a. myasthenia gravis b. dermatitis herpetiformis c. gluten-sensitive enteropathy d. chronic active hepatitis e. all of the above 3153. Which of the following is increased in hypovolemic shock? a. urine flow b. pulse rate c. cardiac index d. blood pressure e. central venous pressure 3154. Which of the following is LEAST likely to occur in children with cytomegalic inclusion disease? a. cataract b. jaundice

c. retinitis d. macrocephaly e. optic atrophy 3155. The most likely diagnosis of respiratory distress after birth in full-term infants with heart sounds heard to the right chest is: a. pyloric stenosis b. aspiration pneumonia c. hyaline membrane disease d. diaphragmatic hernia e. esophageal atresia 3156. Hair-on-end appearance in the calvarium on skull X-ray is characteristically seen in: a. anencephaly b. sarcoidosis c. thalassemia d. hydrocephalus e. achondroplasia 3157. The best blood group/type given to patients with unknown crossmatching is: a. O Rh+ b. O Rhc. A Rh+ d. B Rhe. AB Rh3158. Varicella can develop after exposure to:

a. mumps b. measles c. rubella d. tetanus e. shingles 3159. Acute pericarditis is associated with all of the following, EXCEPT: a. severe chest pain b. friction rub c. ST segment elevations d. nausea/vomiting e. increased myocardial enzymes 3160. The most common type of lung cancer associated with heavy cigarette smoking in males is? a. metastatic b. small cell c. alveolar cell d. adenocarcinoma/epidermoid e. none of the above 3161. The most common cause of nongonococcal proctitis in homosexual men is: a. cytomegalovirus b. staphylococcus aureus c. herpes simplex virus d. chlamydia trachomatis

e. pseudomonas aeruginosa 3162. Telescoping of a segment of bowel into the adjacent segment showing (E) sign on X-ray is seen in: a. Meckel's diverticulum b. congenital megacolon c. hypertrophic pyloric stenosis d. congenital duodenal atresia e. intussusception 3163. Surgical treatment of tetralogy of Fallot is intended to increase the blood flow in the: a. aorta b. right ventricle c. pulmonary artery d. subclavian artery e. superior vena cava 3164. Carcinoma of the esophagus/cervix most commonly are: a. adenocarcinoma b. squamous cell carcinoma c. transitional cell carcinoma d. metastatic carcinoma e. none of the above 3165. The drug of choice for the treatment of amebic liver abscess is: a. tetracycline b. streptomycin

c. chloramphenicol d. erythromycin e. metronidazole 3166. Osler nodes, Janeway lesions and Roth spots are seen in: a. infective endocarditis b. chronic pancreatitis c. ulcerative colitis d. viral hepatitis e. toxic shock syndrome 3167. A mid or late diastolic low pitched mitral murmur (Austin Flint murmur) can be heard in: a. mitral stenosis b. ventricular septal defect c. severe aortic regurgitation d. mitral regurgitation e. tricuspid regurgitation 3168. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be seen in rheumatic fever? a. skin rash b. arthritis c. pericarditis d. joint deformities e. increased antistreptolysin titer 3169. Pleural effusion can be detected on anteroposterior chest X ray when pleural fluid is:

a. 10 mL b. 20 mL c. 100 mL d. 150 mL e. 250 mL 3170. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be associated with lung cancer? a. arsenic b. nickel c. asbestos d. silicon dioxide e. petroleum 3171. Chronic inhalation of cotton or linen dust is associated with: a. berylliosis b. bagassosis c. byssinosis d. sequoiosis e. suberosis 3172. Eggshell calcifications on chest X ray is seen in: a. asbestosis b. pneumoconioses c. radiation pneumonitis d. bronchial asthma

e. silicosis 3173. The most common abdominal mass found in the neonatal period after the first week of life is: a. neuroblastoma b. splenomegaly c. hydronephrosis d. Wilm's tumor e. intestinal tumor 3174. Which of the following tests is LEAST helpful in diagnosis of pulmonary hypertension? a. pulmonary function tests b. perfusion lung scan c. echocardiogram d. pulmonary angiography e. chest X ray 3175. The most common cause of pneumonia in in children over 5 years of age is: a. coxiella brunetii b. histoplasma capsulatum c. chlamydia trachomatis d. mycoplasma pneumoniae e. mycobacterium tuberculosis Sample questions 3151 to 3175 of 9515

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3176. The average life expectancy for patients with cystic fibrosis is: a. 10 years b. 20 years c. 30 years d. 40 years e. 50 years 3177. Which of the following medications worsens brochospasm and is contraindicated in patients with COPD or bronchial asthma? a. prednisone b. atropine sulphate c. aminophylline d. propanolol e. cromolyn sodium 3178. Clubbing of the digits is LEAST likely to be caused by: a. bronchial asthma b. infective endocarditis c. idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis d. cyanotic congenital heart disease

e. pulmonary arteriovenous malformation 3179. The most common cause of congenital stridor is: a. laryngeal webs b. vocal cord paralysis c. laryngomalacia d. subglottic stenosis e. subglottic hemangioma 3180. The leading cause of death from skin disease is: a. Bown's disease b. squamous cell carcinoma c. basal cell carcinoma d. malignant melanoma e. keratoacanthoma 3181. Which of the following dermatologic disorder is more common in fishermen/meat handlers: a. erysipelas b. erythrasma c. erysipeloid d. pemphigus e. pityriasis rosea 3182. The causative organism in erysipelas (Saint Anthony's fire) is: a. clostriduim b. staphylococcus aureus

c. escherichia coli d. streptococcus pyogenes group B e. virus 3183. The causative organism in foruncolosis is: a. klebsiella b. staphylococcus aureus c. escherichia coli d. clostriduim e. bacterioides 3184. Which of the following is contraindicated in treatment of chronic discoid lupus erythematosus? a. dapsone b. corticosteroids c. radiotherapy d. chloroquine e. quinacrine 3185. The most common skin disorder is: a. dermatitis herpetiformis b. seborrheic dermatitis c. erythema multiforme d. acne vulgaris e. pityriasis rosea 3186. Skin (Herald patch)/(Christmas tree) configurations are seen in: a. dermatitis herpetiformis

b. seborrheic dermatitis c. erythema multiforme d. pemphigus e. pityriasis rosea 3187. Acantholysis is a hallmark of: a. dermatitis herpetiformis b. psoriasis c. erythema multiforme d. pemphigus vulgaris e. bullous pemphigoid 3188. Toxic epidermal necrolysis and Steven Johnson syndrome (erythema multiforme major) are most commonly produced by: a. amoxicillin b. ampicillin c. penicillin d. sulfonamides e. trimethoprim sulphamethoxazole 3189. Generalized pruritus in patients on hemodialysis is usually due to: a. scabies b. uremia c. atopic dermatitis d. psoriasis

e. lichen planus 3190. Following are associated with carcinoid syndrome, EXCEPT: a. tricuspid regurgitation/pulmonic stenosis b. abdominal cramps/diarrhea c. mitral stenosis or regurgitation d. increased urinary 5 HIAA e. edema of head/neck 3191. The initial treatment of back pain due to spinal cord compression by tumor mass is: a. surgical excision b. chemotherapy c. radiotherapy d. corticosteroids e. none of the above 3192. Following diseases are more common in the elderly, EXCEPT: a. tuberculosis b. craniopharyngioma c. polymyalgia rheumatica d. herpes zoster infection e. cataracts/otosclerosis 3193. The most common cause of bilateral vocal cord paralysis is: a. brain stem lesion b. supranuclear lesion

c. thyroidectomy d. cortical lesion e. congenital central lesion 3194. Which of the following dermatologic disorders may associate with lesions of the oral cavity? a. lichen planus b. keratoacanthoma c. tinea versicolor d. erythrasma e. erysipeloid 3195. The most common cause of facial (peripheral seventh nerve) paralysis is: a. acoustic neuroma b. Guillain Barre syndrome c. surgical trauma d. Bell's palsy e. temporal bone fracture (trauma) 3196. The most common cause of tinnitus (sensation of noise in the ear) is: a. ototoxicity b. presbycusis c. acoustic neuroma d. congenital aneurysms e. temporal bone fracture 3197. In sensorineural deafness, air conduction threshold and bone conduction threshold are:

a. unequally increased b. equally increased c. unequally decreased d. equally decreased e. none of the above 3198. Deafness in patients with otosclerosis usually starts: a. at birth b. in the first decade of life c. in the second-third decade of life d. in the third-fourth decade of life e. after the fifth decade of life 3199. Surgical therapy instead of medical therapy of epilepsy is required in: a. 1% b. 5% c. 15 to 20% d. 25 to 40% e. 50% 3200. The best diagnostic test for spinal cord tumor is: a. CT scan b. electromyography c. plain film d. MRI e. X ray

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3201. The most frequent indication for lumbar puncture is suspected: a. meningitis b. ruptured Berry aneurysm c. subarachnoid hemorrhage d. head injury e. brain tumor 3202. The most common cause of acquired arteriovenous fistula is: a. infection b. blunt trauma c. penetrating injury d. neoplastic invasion e. connective tissue disorder 3203. Arterial occlusion is differentiated from arterial vasoconstriction by:

a. Brodie Trendelenburg test b. Allen test c. Schwartz test d. Adson's test e. Tinel's test 3204. Malabsorption of bile salts and vitamin B12 (cobalamin) typically occur after: a. total colectomy b. jejunal resection c. hemorrhoidectomy d. ileal resection e. splenectomy 3205. The most common site of volvulus (twisting of bowel around mesenteric root) is: a. splenic flexure b. cecum c. transverse colon d. sigmoid colon/gastric e. ascending colon 3206. The most common cause of spleen rupture is: a. typhoid fever/malaria b. pregnancy c. infectious mononucleosis d. blunt abdominal trauma

e. leukemia/lymphoma 3207. Puestow/Du Val procedures are used in surgical treatment of: a. splenic rupture b. chronic pancreatitis c. inguinal hernia d. reflux esophagitis e. carcinoma of the colon 3208. The most common presenting complaint in patients with carcinoma of the gallbladder is: a. weight loss b. painless jaundice c. palpable mass d. constipation e. intermittent right upper quadrant pain 3209. Following are major complications of acute cholecystitis, EXCEPT: a. perforation b. bleeding c. abscess d. fistula e. empyema 3210. The most common symptom of gastric carcinoma is: a. melena b. epigastric mass

c. dysphagia d. weight loss e. hepatomegaly 3211. The most common cause of emphysematous cholecystitis is: a. gram positive bacilli b. aerobic bacilli c. clostridial infections d. enterobacterial infections e. bacterioides 3212. The most common site of intraperitoneal abscess is: a. subdiaphragmatic b. pelvic c. lower quadrants d. subhepatic e. paracolics 3213. Perforated duodenal ulcer causes mid epigastric pain which is usually radiated to the: a. back b. shoulders c. right upper quadrant d. left lower quadrant e. right lower quadrant 3214. Following are risk factors for carcinoma of esophagus, EXCEPT: a. reflux esophagitis

b. esophageal diverticula c. chronic iron deficiency d. congenital esophageal tylosis e. carcinoma of the head/neck 3215. Nissen fundoplication is the most effective surgical procedure in treatment of: a. achalasia b. reflux esophagitis c. hiatal hernia d. esophageal diverticula e. esophageal cancer 3216. The most common heart tumor is: a. myxoma b. fibroma c. lipoma d. teratoma e. sarcoma 3217. The most common cause of pericarditis is: a. bacterial contamination b. acute myocardial infarction c. tuberculosis d. rheumatic fever

e. unknown (idiopathic) 3218. Following are associated with sarcoidosis, EXCEPT: a. positive Kveim test b. hypercalciuria c. hypocalcemia d. erythema nodosum e. leukopenia 3219. Spontaneous pneumothorax is most common in: a. infants b. males 50 to 70 years of age c. females 15 to 35 years of age d. males 15 to 35 years of age e. females after menopause 3220. Tietze's syndrome is a painful nonsuppurative inflammation of the: a. pleura b. lung c. intercostal muscle d. mediastinum e. costochondral cartilage 3221. The most common type of thyroiditis is: a. Riedel's thyroiditis (struma) b. acute suppurative thyroiditis

c. subacute granulomatous (DeQuervain's) thyroiditis d. Hashimoto's thyroiditis e. none of the above 3222. The most common presentation of thyrotoxicosis is: a. diarrhea b. atrial fibrillation c. tachycardia d. weakness e. constipation 3223. The most common malignant tumor of the parotid gland is: a. adenoid cystic carcinoma b. clear cell carcinoma c. mucoepidermoid carcinoma d. adenocarcinoma e. squamous cell carcinoma 3224. The most common tumor of the nasal cavity is: a. melanoma b. sarcoma c. adenocarcinoma d. esthesioneuroblastoma e. squamous cell carcinoma 3225. Pyomyositis (acute pyogenic infection of muscles) is usually due to: a. klebsiella

b. staphylococcus aureus c. escherichia coli d. clostriduim e. bacterioides Sample questions 3201 to 3225 of 9515

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3226. The most common pathogen in surgical wound infection is: a. klebsiella b. staphylococcus aureus c. haemophilus influenzae d. clostriduim e. bacterioides 3227. The most common cardiac disease is: a. valvular heart disease b. congenital heart disease c. coronary artery disease d. congestive heart failure

e. cardiac tumor 3228. The most common pulmonary complication in patients who have abdominal surgery is: a. pulmonary embolism b. pneumothorax/pleural effusion c. pulmonary aspiration d. postoperative pneumonia e. atelectasis 3229. The most common pulmonary complication among patients who die after surgery is: a. pulmonary embolism b. pneumothorax/pleural effusion c. pulmonary aspiration d. postoperative pneumonia e. atelectasis 3230. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be a complication of ileostomy? a. gallstones b. kidney stones c. paraileostomy abscess d. malignant transformation e. diarrhea 3231. The main complaint in patients with Guillain Barre syndrome (ascending paralysis or acute polyneuropathy) is: a. dyspnea

b. weakness c. tachycardia d. abnormalities of sweating e. impaired sphincter control 3232. Asymptomatic gynecomastia in a 13 year old boy is best managed by: a. mammography b. surgical excision c. reassurance d. chest X ray e. excisional biopsy 3233. Diagnosis of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria is confirmed by: a. indirect antiglobulin test b. Schilling test c. specific enzyme test d. Ham's (acidified serum) test e. Coomb's test 3234. Adult polycystic kidney disease is usually discovered: a. at birth b. in the first decade of life c. in the second or third decade of life d. in the fourth or fifth decade of life e. after the sixth decade of life 3235. The most common presentation of mumps is:

a. high fever b. abdominal pain c. nausea/vomiting d. scrotal swelling e. parotid swelling 3236. Botulism is characterized by: a. hepatosplenomegaly b. fever c. rash d. diplopia e. hypercalcemia 3237. Symptoms of pyridoxine (B6) deficiency are similar to those seen with the deficiency of: a. cyanocobalamin (B12) b. ascorbic acid c. niacin d. riboflavin (B2) e. thiamine (B1) 3238. The drug of choice for symptomatic patients with toxoplasmosis (caused by protozoon) is: a. corticosteroids b. clindamycin c. pyrimethamine/sulfadiazine d. trimethoprim sulphamethoxazole

e. tetracycline 3239. Toxoplasmosis is caused by: a. virus b. parasite c. protozoa d. spirochete e. rickettsia 3240. Courvoisier's law (palpable gallbladder and jaundice) and Trousseau's sign (migratory thrombophlebitis) are associated with: a. splenic rupture b. hepatoma c. peptic ulcer d. gastric cancer e. pancreatic cancer 3241. Following are criteria for the diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus, EXCEPT: a. malar rash b. photosensitivity c. leukocytosis d. serositis e. thrombocytopenia 3242. Systemic lupus erythematosus is LEAST likely to be associated with: a. hepatitis b. synovitis

c. myocarditis d. conjunctivitis e. pleurisy (pleuritis) 3243. The sulfonamides are contraindicated in the latter part of pregnancy because of the risk of neonatal: a. hemorrhage b. blindness c. deafness d. teeth discoloration e. kernicterus 3244. The most common cause of cirrhosis of the liver in North America is: a. hemochromatosis b. alcoholic hepatitis c. drug induced hepatitis d. viral hepatitis e. primary biliary cirrhosis 3245. Congenital intracranial aneurysms: a. are usually symptomatic b. are more common in children than in adults c. usually occur at arterial biforcations d. are never multiple e. cause epidural hemorrhage when rupture 3246. The most reliable test for diagnosis of transient ischemic attacks is: a. bilateral carotid arteriography

b. CT scan of the head c. ultrasound d. X ray of the head e. electroencephalogram 3247. Drop attacks (atonic seizures, falls without warning/without loss of consciousness) are associated with: a. epileptic seizure b. migraine headache c. pseudotumor cerebri d. subarachnoid hemorrhage (saccular aneurysms) e. transient ischemic attacks (vertebrobasilar ischemia) 3248. Following are features of cholera, EXCEPT: a. severe (rice-water) diarrhea b. marked dehydration c. metabolic alkalosis d. marked hemoconcentration e. hypotension/hypokalemia 3249. Nearly all patients who receive a full course of radiation therapy for cancer of the lung/breast develop: a. leukemia b. hepatitis c. skin ulcers d. polycythemia

e. pulmonary fibrosis 3250. Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis is best treated with: a. bronchodilators b. anticholinergics c. antimediators d. corticosteroids/prednisone e. theophyllines/amphotericin B Sample questions 3226 to 3250 of 9515

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3251. Cystic fibrosis is LEAST likely to be associated with: a. digital clubbing b. abnormal xylose absorption c. glomerulonephritis d. nasal polyps e. gallstones/biliary cirrhosis 3252. Intrauterine device (IUD) has a failure rate of 2%-3%. absolute contraindication/s of (IUD) is/are: a. multiple sexual partners

b. pregnancy/pelvic inflammatory disease c. diabetes mellitus/history of ectopic pregnancy d. severe dysmenorrhea/endometrial hyperplasia e. valvular heart disease 3253. The typical site of herpes zoster (shingles) is: a. lower extremities b. face/hands c. intertriginous areas d. lower abdomen e. distribution of a nerve root 3254. The average incubation period in varicella (chickenpox) is: a. 4 days b. 9 days c. 14 days d. 20 days e. one month 3255. Stein Leventhal syndrome (polycystic ovary syndrome) is characterized by amenorrhea/hirsutism/obesity and: a. low estrogen levels b. high serum FSH c. high serum LH d. low urinary 17 ketosteroids e. low plasma testosterone 3256. Sheehan's syndrome is associated with pituitary:

a. trauma b. adenoma c. fibrosis d. hyperplasia e. hemorrhagic necrosis 3257. The most important test for the diagnosis of adrenogenital syndrome is: a. plasma cortisol b. urinary 17 ketosteroid c. urinary gonadotropines d. serum LH e. dexamethasone suppression test 3258. The most common malignant bone tumor after 60 years of age is: a. osteogenic sarcoma b. Ewing's tumor c. primary chondrosarcoma d. multiple myeloma e. fibrosarcoma 3259. The most common cause of hypoparathyroidism is: a. idiopathic b. inflammatory c. thyroidectomy d. neoplastic

e. congenital 3260. The most common site of osteogenic sarcoma (osteosarcoma) is: a. distal metaphysis of the humerus b. proximal metaphysis of the humerus c. proximal metaphysis of the ulna d. distal metaphysis of the femur e. diaphysis of the humerus 3261. Which of the following is caused by human herpes virus type 6 and 7? a. roseola b. measles c. rubella d. infectious mononucleosis e. erythema infectiosum (fifth disease) 3262. Which of the following is caused by human parvovirus B19? a. roseola b. measles c. rubella d. infectious mononucleosis e. erythema infectiosum (fifth disease) 3263. Which of the following is caused by paramyxovirus? a. roseola b. measles

c. rubella d. infectious mononucleosis e. erythema infectiosum (fifth disease) 3264. In North America, AIDS is most common among: a. hemophiliacs b. heterosexual individuals c. homosexual or bisexual men d. homosexual intravenous drug users e. homosexual or bisexual intravenous drug users 3265. In ages less than 50 years, arcus senilis indicates: a. hyperammonemia b. hyperprolactinoma c. hyperaldosteronism d. hyperparathyroidism e. hypercholesterolemia 3266. Which of the following types of glaucoma is the most common? a. congenital glaucoma b. normal pressure glaucoma c. chronic open angle glaucoma d. acute angle closure glaucoma e. chronic angle closure glaucoma 3267. Following are characteristics of SIADH, EXCEPT: a. salt wasting

b. hyponatremia c. concentrated urine d. high plasma osmolarity e. high urinary osmolarity 3268. Tzanck smear or cells (multinucleated giant cells) are seen in 75% of cases of: a. impetigo b. tularemia c. gonorrhea d. erythrasma e. genital herpes 3269. Renal secretion of potassium is decreased by: a. alkalosis b. aldosterone c. spironolactone d. hyperparathyroidism e. diet high in potassium 3270. Sever skeletomuscular pain is characteristic of: a. malaria b. dengue fever c. yellow fever d. typhoid fever e. none of the above 3271. Metabolic alkalosis is caused by:

a. diarrhea b. hyperaldosteronism c. adrenal insufficiency d. chronic renal failure e. methanol (methyl alcohol) poisoning 3272. Respiratory acidosis is most compatible with: a. pH = 7.41, HCO3 = 30, Pco2 = 42 b. pH = 7.42, HCO3 = 42, Pco2 = 40 c. pH = 7.31, HCO3 = 28, Pco2 = 62 d. pH = 7.48, HCO3 = 16, Pco2 = 18 e. pH = 7.67, HCO3 = 46, Pco2 = 48 3273. Berger's disease (IgA nephropathy) is associated with primary glomerulonephritis type: a. membranous b. minimal changes c. non-proliferative d. mesangial proliferative e. focal segmental sclerosis 3274. Which of the following ECG changes is typical of hypokalemia? a. widening QRS b. tall T waves c. prominent U waves d. prolonged PR intervals

e. all of the above 3275. During pregnancy: a. RBF is decreased b. GFR is decreased c. kidney size is decreased d. serum creatinine and urea are decreased e. renal pelvis and ureters are constricted Sample questions 3251 to 3275 of 9515

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3276. A patient with leukemia develops pneumonia, which of the following is most likely to be the cause? a. echovirus b. adenovirus c. coronavirus d. cytomegalovirus e. respiratory syncytial virus 3277. An AIDS patient with decreased vision develops hemiparesis and then quadriparesis, the most likely diagnosis is: a. poliomyelitis

b. multiple sclerosis c. Creutzfeldt Jakob disease d. subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSP) e. progressive multifocal leukoencephalitis (PML) 3278. The most common cause of anaerobic infection in humans is: a. bacteroides b. fusobacterium c. anaerobic cocci d. clostridium difficile e. clostridium perfringens 3279. Abdominal cramps is LEAST likely to be caused by: a. vibrio cholerae b. bacillus cereus c. escherichia coli d. staphylococcus aureus e. clostridium perfringens 3280. Following are symptoms of acute viral hepatitis, EXCEPT: a. rash b. fever c. jaundice d. dark urine e. dark stools

3281. The most common form of acute hepatitis in children in hepatitis: a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 3282. Cigarette smoking causes anal cancer and: a. macrosomy b. renal cancer c. thyroid cancer d. chronic hepatitis e. all of the above 3283. ECG shows large R waves with ST-segment depression in leads V1 and V2, the most likely diagnosis is: a. LBBB b. hyperkalemia c. inferior infarct d. posterior infarct e. pericardial effusion 3284. Arterial blood values show pH = 7.42, Pco2 = 42 and HCO3 = 24, the most likely diagnosis is: a. normal status b. metabolic acidosis c. metabolic alkalosis

d. respiratory acidosis e. respiratory alkalosis 3285. The safest tetracycline given to patients with renal failure is: a. minocycline b. doxycycline c. methacycline d. demeclocycline e. oxytetracycline 3286. Auer rod (an eosinophilic needlelike blast cell) is pathognomonic of: a. acute lymphoblastic leukemia b. acute myeloid (myeogenous) leukemia c. chronic myelocytic leukemia d. hairy cell leukemia e. Hodgkin's lymphoma 3287. The most common cause of sepsis (septicemia) and death in burn patients is: a. klebsiella pneumonia b. pseudomonas aeruginosa c. escherichia coli d. borrelia burgdorferi e. haemophilus influenzae 3288. The causative agent in bubonic plague (transmitted by flea bite/treated with streptomycin) is: a. bacterial

b. viral c. chlamydial d. protozoal e. unknown 3289. The causative agent in Kawasaki's disease is: a. bacterial b. viral c. chlamydial d. protozoal e. unknown 3290. Bubonic plague is caused by: a. yersinia pestis (aerobic gram-negative rod) b. haemophilus ducreyi c. borrelia recurrentis d. borrelia burgdorferi e. rickettsia prowazekii 3291. Epidemic louse-borne typhus (classical typhus fever) is caused by: a. donovania granulomatis b. haemophilus ducreyi c. borrelia recurrentis d. borrelia burgdorferi e. rickettsia prowazekii 3292. Relapsing fever is caused by:

a. donovania granulomatis b. haemophilus ducreyi c. borrelia recurrentis d. borrelia burgdorferi e. haemophilus influenzae 3293. Strawberry spots on the vaginal mucosa are most likely to be seen in: a. syphilis b. gonorrhea c. candidiasis d. trichomoniasis e. granuloma inguinale 3294. Raspberry or strawberry tongue is associated with: a. trichomoniasis b. measles c. mumps d. scarlet fever e. infective endocarditis 3295. Starvation decreases glucose and insulin, increases glucagone and ketone body in the blood and causes: a. hypochromic microcytic anemia b. hypochromic normocytic anemia c. hyperchromic macrocytic anemia d. hemolysis

e. none of the above 3296. Self mutilation/hyperuricemia are associated with: a. Wilson's disease b. Turner's syndrome c. Fabry's disease d. Lesch Nyhan syndrome e. Von Hippel Lindau disease 3297. Progressive renal failure is most likely to occur in: a. Wilson's disease b. Turner's syndrome c. Fabry's disease d. Lesch Nyhan syndrome e. Von Hippel Lindau disease 3298. A karyotype of 46XX is often seen in: a. Down's syndrome b. Klinefelter's syndrome c. Turner's syndrome d. testicular feminization e. true hermaphroditism 3299. A karyotype of 46XY is associated with: a. Down's syndrome b. Klinefelter's syndrome c. Turner's syndrome

d. testicular feminization e. true hermaphroditism 3300. Following are associated with mental retardation (IQ below 70), EXCEPT: a. congenital hypothyroidism b. homocystinuria c. McArdle's disease d. retinoblastoma e. Tay Sachs disease Sample questions 3276 to 3300 of 9515

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3301. Following are associated with mental retardation, EXCEPT: a. neurofibromatosis b. homocystinuria c. Niemann Pick disease

d. galactosemia e. Tay Sachs disease 3302. Death from systemic lupus erythematosus is usually due to: a. pneumonia b. cardiac failure c. asphyxia d. renal failure e. sepsis 3303. Absolute contraindication to combined birth control pill include: a. hypertension b. diabetes mellitus c. migraine headache d. history of hepatic tumor e. active gallbladder disease 3304. Mittelschmerz is the pain caused by: a. pericardial effusion b. pleural effusion c. ectopic pregnancy d. ovarian torsion e. ruptured follicular cyst at the time of ovulation 3305. Blepharitis is particularly common in children with: a. necrotizing enterocolitis b. maple syrup urine disease

c. phenylketonuria d. Down's syndrome e. coarctation of the aorta 3306. Characteristic (E shape) of esophagus on barium swallow is seen in: a. patent ductus arteriosus b. coarctation of the aorta c. mitral valve prolapse d. aortic stenosis e. atrial septal defect 3307. Continuous machinery murmur is heard in: a. patent ductus arteriosus b. Ebstein's anomaly c. mitral valve prolapse d. aortic stenosis e. atrial septal defect 3308. Osteogenic sarcoma/Ewing's sarcoma of the bone most frequently present: a. painful bone mass b. no symptoms c. headache d. paraplegia e. painless bone mass 3309. Periosteal elevation/lytic destruction/(onion skin or onion peel) appearance on bone X ray are seen in:

a. multiple myeloma b. osteogenic sarcoma c. Ewing's sarcoma d. osteomyelitis e. eosinophilic granuloma of bone 3310. The most common brain tumor in children is: a. astrocytoma b. medulloblastoma c. glioblastoma multiforme d. craniopharyngioma e. oligodendroglioma 3311. Children with neuroblastoma (the most common congenital tumor occurring during the first year of life) usually present: a. maculopapular rash b. polyuria c. constipation d. nausea/vomiting e. palpable abdominal mass 3312. Histoplasmosis is best treated with: a. metronidazole b. vancomycin c. amphotericin B d. griseofulvin

e. streptomycin 3313. Schistosomiasis is best treated with: a. furazolidone b. praziquantel c. metronidazole d. pyrimethamine e. mebendazole 3314. The most common presentation of acquired toxoplasmosis is: a. cervical adenopathy b. maculopapular rash c. fever d. splenomegaly e. chorioretinitis 3315. The most characteristic feature of Lyme disease is: a. fever/chills b. headache/myalgia c. Bell's palsy d. arthritis e. erythema migrans 3316. Weil's disease (icterohemorrhagic fever) is characterized by jaundice and high mortality rate which is a severe form of: a. tularemia b. listeriosis

c. psittacosis d. leptospirosis e. relapsing fever 3317. Relapsing fever (borreliosis) is usually diagnosed by: a. blood culture b. muscle biopsy c. lymph node biopsy d. microscopic examination of the blood e. microscopic examination of the urine 3318. Chlamydia psittaci (psittacosis) is transmitted to humans mainly by: a. humans b. cows c. birds d. raccoons e. skunks 3319. Classic (snowstorm) appearance on chest X ray is seen in: a. mycoplasmal pneumonia b. sarcoidosis c. legionella infection d. miliary tuberculosis e. bronchial asthma 3320. The most common cause of acute purulent otitis media is: a. staphylococcus epidermatidis

b. escherichia coli c. staphylococcus aureus d. streptococcus (pneumococcus) pneumonia e. haemophilus influenzae type B 3321. Group B streptococcal disease (which is most common in infants) is best treated with: a. penicillin G b. amphotericin B c. ampicillin d. erythromycin e. corticosteroids 3322. Which of the following is the most common cause of septic arthritis in childern less than 2 years: a. salmonella b. escherichia coli c. neisseria gonorrheae d. staphylococcus aureus e. pseudomonas aeruginosa 3323. Cholera is best prevented by: a. amoxicillin b. ampicillin c. streptomycin d. kanamycin

e. vancomycin 3324. Shigellosis (bacillary dysentery) is best treated with: a. amoxicillin b. trimethoprim sulphamethoxazole c. streptomycin d. kanamycin e. vancomycin 3325. The most common cause of abnormal uterine bleeding is: a. trauma b. tumor c. infection d. coagulopathy e. dysfunctional uterine bleeding Sample questions 3301 to 3325 of 9515

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3326. The usual site of ganglion is: a. ankle

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b. elbow c. vertebral spine d. finger e. wrist 3327. The lesion in Legg-Calve-Perthes disease (coxa plana) is located in: a. tibial tubercle b. calcaneus c. vertebral ring d. femoral head e. tarsal navicular 3328. Volkmann's ischemic contracture (compartment syndrome) is associated with: a. fracture of the hip b. fracture of the femoral head c. fracture of the patella d. fracture of the clavicle e. supracondylar fracture of the humerus 3329. Air in bowel wall and/or in biliary tree is seen in: a. Meckel's diverticulum b. necrotizing enterocolitis c. drug induced colitis d. Hirschsprung's disease e. ulcerative colitis 3330. Meckel's diverticulum (usually presents as painless rectal

bleeding/best treated with excision)is best diagnosed by: a. abdominal X ray b. ultrasound c. 99mTc scan d. stool examination e. intestinal biopsy 3331. Congenital fusion of the cervical vertebrae is seen in: a. osteoporosis b. Tay Sachs disease c. Marfan syndrome d. Prader Willi syndrome e. Klippel Feil syndrome 3332. Long fingers/toes (arachnodactyly) is associated with: a. myasthenia gravis b. Tay Sachs disease c. Marfan syndrome d. Prader Willi syndrome e. Down syndrome 3333. Primary brain tumors in children most commonly are: a. craniopharyngiomas b. germ cell tumors c. glial cell tumors d. meningeal tumors

e. lymphomas 3334. The hallmark of early renal failure is: a. hypertension b. oliguria c. uremia d. hypercreatininemia e. hyperkalemia 3335. Chlamydial pneumonia with conjunctivitis and cough, occurs most commonly in ages: a. 2 to 12 weeks b. 1 to 2 years c. 4 to 6 years d. 6 to 10 years e. 12 to 14 years 3336. Fever is LEAST likely to be associated with: a. bacterial pneumonia b. viral pneumonia c. mycoplasmal pneumonia d. chlamydial pneumonia e. aspiration pneumonia 3337. Mediastinitis is usually due to a complication of: a. radiotherapy b. lung cancer

c. chylothorax d. esophageal carcinoma e. iatrogenic esophageal perforation 3338. Which of the following is/are LEAST likely to cause bloody diarrhea? a. shigella/escherichia coli b. cryptosporidium/yersinia c. clostridium perfringens d. clostridium difficile/campylobacter e. salmonella/vibrio parahaemolyticus 3339. Following are associated with blood in stool, EXCEPT: a. giardia lamblia b. cryptosporidium c. shigella d. clostridium difficile e. salmonella 3340. The most common small bowel cancer in children is: a. adenocarcinoma b. squamous cell carcinoma c. lymphosarcoma d. leiomyosarcoma e. none of the above 3341. Olive sized mass in the subphrenic location is usually felt in: a. intussusception

b. hiatal hernia c. pyloric stenosis d. Meckel's diverticulum e. congenital megacolon 3342. The most common cause of intestinal obstruction in the first 2 years of life is: a. foreign body b. intestinal lymphoma c. pyloric stenosis d. Meckel's diverticulum e. intussusception 3343. 2 year old child with a sausage shaped mass in upper abdomen and blood-stained stools, the most likely diagnosis is: a. intussusception b. hiatal hernia c. pyloric stenosis d. Meckel's diverticulum e. congenital megacolon 3344. (String sign) on X ray is associated with: a. hiatal hernia b. congenital megacolon c. Meckel's diverticulum d. peptic ulcer/ulcerative colitis e. pyloric stenosis/Crohn's colitis

3345. The most common pathogen in myocarditis/ pericarditis is: a. mumps virus b. cytomegalovirus c. herpes virus d. coxackievirus A e. coxackievirus B 3346. The most common cyanotic congenital heart defect presenting after 2 weeks of age is: a. hypoplastic left heart syndrome b. tricuspid atresia c. pulmonary atresia d. Tetralogy of Fallot e. transposition of the great arteries 3347. Midsystolic click followed by late or midsystolic murmur is heard in: a. patent ductus arteriosus b. ventricular septal defect c. atrial septal defect d. mitral valve prolapse e. coarctation of the aorta 3348. Among congenital heart diseases, the incidence of ventricular septal defect is about: a. 5% b. 10% c. 25%

d. 45% e. 50% 3349. The most common cause of congestive heart failure in children is: a. rheumatic fever b. respiratory disease c. sepsis/acidosis d. myocarditis e. congenital heart disease 3350. The most common anterior mediastinal mass in infants is: a. thymoma b. lymphoma c. thymic cyst d. normal thymus e. teratoma Sample questions 3326 to 3350 of 9515

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3351. The most common cause of rapidly developing mediastinal compression in children is: a. thymoma

b. lymphosarcoma c. bronchogenic cyst d. neuroblastoma e. neuroganglioblastoma 3352. The most common solid malignant tumor in children under the age of 4 years is: a. Wilm's tumor (nephroblastoma) b. lymphosarcoma c. adenocarcinoma of pancreas d. neuroblastoma e. hepatoma 3353. The most common cause of acute hospital admission in children less than 2 years of age is: a. viral croup b. bronchitis c. bronchiolitis d. laryngomalacia e. epiglottitis 3354. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be seen in chlamydial pneumonia: a. fever b. wheezes c. cough

d. conjunctivitis e. nasal discharge 3355. Diagnosis of laryngomalacia (congenital laryngeal stridor) is established by: a. laryngeal biopsy b. laryngoscopy/X-ray c. pulmonary function tests d. chest X-ray e. arterial blood gases 3356. Following are features of viral croup, EXCEPT: a. stridor b. barking cough c. epiglottid enlargement d. absence of fever in most cases e. subepiglottid narrowing (steeple sign) 3357. Diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is confirmed by: a. urinalysis b. monospot test c. sputum culture d. chest X ray e. lymph node biopsy 3358. Tiny ulcers on the anterior palate of the oral cavity are most likely due to: a. infectious mononucleosis

b. measles c. oral thrush d. herpangina e. oral syphilis 3359. The most common cause of tonsillar abscess is: a. staphylococcus aureus b. beta hemolytic streptococci c. alpha hemolytic streptococci d. escherichia coli e. bacterioides fragilis 3360. Death in patients with Ludwig's angina is usually due to: a. starvation b. pneumonia c. sepsis d. congestive heart failure e. sudden airway obstruction 3361. Ranula is a: a. cutaneous ulcer b. mediastinal mass c. parotid cyst d. sublingual cyst e. sublingual node 3362. Perleche (fissure of the angle of the mouth) is usually due to:

a. candida albicans b. staphylococcus aureus c. escherichia coli d. streptococcus (pneumococcus) e. haemophilus influenzae 3363. The most common cause of recurrent sinusitis is: a. septal deviation b. allergic sinusitis c. nasal polyps d. foreign body e. cystic fibrosis 3364. The most common presentation of acute sinusitis in children is: a. retro - orbital pain b. fever c. headache d. periorbital swelling e. nasal discharge 3365. The most common infectious disease is: a. toxoplasmosis b. mycoplasmal pneumonia c. acute viral rhinitis d. amebiasis e. measles

3366. Recurrent otitis media is effectively treated with: a. penicillin / erythromycin b. sulfisoxazole / amoxicillin c. streptomycin / kanamycin d. gentamycin / ampicillin e. tetracycline / chloramphenicol 3367. Recurrent otitis media is defined as 3 or more episodes of otitis media within a: a. 2 month period b. 4 month period c. 6 month period d. 12 month period e. 24 month period 3368. The most common ocular disorder in children is: a. uveitis b. conjunctivitis c. retinitis pigmentosa d. blepharitis e. corneal ulcers 3369. The most common cause of infectious neonatal conjunctivitis is: a. viral b. gonococcal c. pneumococcal d. chlamydial

e. staphylococcal 3370. Granuloma annulare is best treated with: a. corticosteroids b. kwellada c. antibiotics d. radiotherapy e. none of the above 3371. Lindane (gamma benzene hexachloride, Kwell) is used in treatment of: a. scabies b. tinea versicolor c. herpes simplex d. molluscum contagiosum e. atopic dermatitis 3372. Which of the following is used in the treatment of cholinergic effects of mushroom poisoning? a. naloxone b. physostigmine c. ethanol d. atropine e. methylene blue 3373. Carbon monoxide poisoning is treated with: a. naloxone b. physostigmine

c. ethanol d. atropine e. oxygen 3374. Alopecia/scaly dermatitis are associated with deficiency of: a. vitamin C b. pyridoxine c. pantothenic acid d. biotin e. cyanocobalamin (B12) 3375. Vitamin E (tocopherols) appears to protect against coronary artery disease, its deficiency is associated with: a. beriberi b. hemorrhage c. osteomalacia d. xerophthalmia e. hemolytic anemia Sample questions 3351 to 3375 of 9515

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3376. Which of the following is a component of hemoglobin (hematocrit)? a. zinc b. iron c. cobalt d. iodine e. fluorine 3377. Salpingitis (pelvic inflammatory disease/ cervical motion tenderness) in a 20 year old female is best diagnosed by: a. ultrasound b. laparoscopy c. culdocentesis d. uterine biopsy e. urinalysis/cervical gram stain 3378. The most common complaint of women with pelvic inflammatory disease is: a. fever b. vaginal discharge c. abdominal pain d. dysuria e. excessive menstrual bleeding 3379. The most common initial presentation of acoustic neuroma is: a. vertigo b. tinnitus c. headache

d. ipsilateral deafness e. facial weakness/numbness 3380. The most common breast disorder in adolescent girls is: a. intraductal papilloma b. fibroadenoma c. fibrocystic disease d. breast hypertrophy e. carcinoma of the breast 3381. After accidents, the second most common cause of death in adolescents/young adults is: a. suicide b. pneumonia c. infection d. neoplasms e. heart disease 3382. Diagnosis of necrotizing enterocolitis is confirmed by: a. rectal biopsy b. blood culture c. complete blood count d. presence of pneumatosis intestinalis on X ray e. presence of blood in the stool 3383. The most common presenting sign in necrotizing enterocolitis is: a. bradycardia

b. abdominal distention c. vomiting d. decreased urine output e. increased apnea 3384. The mortality rate for neonatal meningitis is approximately: a. 5% b. 10% c. 25% d. 35% e. 50% 3385. The most common cause of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome is: a. meconium aspiration syndrome b. hyaline membrane disease c. spontaneous pneumothorax d. congenital pneumonia e. pleural effusion 3386. Homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing occurs from cutting the: a. optic nerve b. optic tract c. optic chiasma d. geniculocalcarine tract e. all of the above

3387. Which of the following can NOT cross the blood-brain barrier? a. H2O b. CO2 and O2 c. protein and cholesterol d. non-ionized (lipid-soluble) drugs e. ionized (non-lipid-soluble) drugs 3388. Respiratory response to exercise result in increased: a. venous Pco2 b. O2 consumption c. CO2 production d. ventilation rate e. all of the above 3389. Shift of hemoglobin O2 dissociation curve to the left (e.g. fetal hemoglobin / carbon monoxide poisoning) causes increased: a. pH b. Pco2 c. 2,3 DPG d. temperature e. all of the above 3390. The most common cause of ophthalmia neonatarum in North America is: a. s. aureus b. chlamydia c. herpes simplex

d. silver nitrate use e. neisseria gonococcal 3391. Cholecystokinine (CCK) is a GI hormone which inhibits: a. gastric emptying b. contraction of gallbladder c. pancreatic enzyme secretion d. growth of exocrine pancreas e. all of the above 3392. Regarding GI motility, the frequency of slow waves is lowest in the stomach and highest in the: a. colon b. ileum c. rectum d. duodenum e. esophagus 3393. Which of the following gastric hormones stimulates insulin release? a. gastrin b. secretin c. cholecystokinin (CCK) d. gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP) e. all of the above 3394. Which of the following gastric hormones is chemically homologous to glucagon? a. gastrin

b. secretin c. cholecystokinin (CCK) d. gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP) e. all of the above 3395. Which of the following is decreased during hemorrhage? a. angiotensin II b. renin and heart rate c. aldosterone, ADH and TPR d. epinephrine and norepinephrine e. none of the above 3396. Parotid gland swellings are malignant in: a. 20% b. 45% c. 60% d. 75% e. 90% 3397. Submandibular gland swellings are malignant in: a. 20% b. 45% c. 60% d. 75% e. 90% 3398. Secondary adrenocortical insufficiency:

a. causes hyperkalemia b. causes hyperpigmentation c. causes volume contraction d. causes metabolic alkalosis e. is due to primary ACTH deficiency 3399. Secretion of growth hormone (somatotropin) is increased by: a. obesity b. pregnancy c. hypoglycemia d. somatostatin e. somatomedins 3400. Conn's syndrome (hyperaldosteronism) is characterized by: a. hypotension b. hyperkalemia c. metabolic alkalosis d. increased renin secretion e. all of the above Sample questions 3376 to 3400 of 9515

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3401. Childhood constipation could be caused by all of the following, EXCEPT: a. cerebral palsy b. hyperthyroidism c. meningomyelocele d. central hypotonia e. Hirschsprung's disease 3402. Oat cell cancers of lung and prostate are best treated with: a. adenosine b. tamoxifen c. etoposide d. doxorubicin e. methotrexate 3403. Tall stature, long extremities and dissecting aneurysm risk are features of: a. Reye's syndrome b. Marfan's syndrome c. Beiter's syndrome

d. Cushing's syndrome e. fragile X syndrome 3404. Fragile X syndrome is characterized by: a. X-linked recessive b. macroorchidism c. long face and jaw d. large ears e. all of the above 3405. Which of the following is a risk factor for amniotic fluid embolism? a. multiparity b. large fetus c. rapid labor d. late maternal age e. all of the above 3406. Angiomyolipoma (renal hamartoma) is found in approximately 45% to 80% of patients with: a. hydrocephalus b. achondroplasia c. hyperthyroidism d. multiple sclerosis e. tuberous sclerosis 3407. Sarcoidosis is associated with: a. hypocalcemia

b. lymphocytosis c. increased ESR d. hypoglobulinemia e. lowered angiotensin convering enzyme 3408. Regarding antenatal monitoring, fetal bradycardia occurs in all of the following, EXCEPT: a. acute cord prolapse b. maternal hypotension c. uterine hypercontractility d. rapid descent during labor e. maternal use of sympathomimetics 3409. Regarding antenatal monitoring, fetal bradycardia occurs in: a. maternal fever b. chorioamnionitis c. acute cord prolapse d. fetal or maternal anemia e. maternal hyperthyroidism 3410. Polyhydramnios occurs in: a. 1/50 deliveries b. 1/100 deliveries c. 1/250 deliveries d. 1/450 deliveries e. 1/750 deliveries 3411. The most common cause of premature labor is:

a. idiopathic b. preeclampsia c. polyhydramnios d. maternal smoking e. multiple gestation 3412. Maternal contraindications to tocolysis (inhibition of uterine contractions) include: a. preeclampsia b. chorioamnionitis c. placenta previa or abruption d. diabetes and heart disease e. all of the above 3413. Fetal contraindications to tocolysis include: a. fetal distress b. multiple gestation c. erythroblastosis fetalis d. severe congenital anomalies e. all of the above 3414. Which of the following is classified as paraphilia? a. fetishism b. transvestitism c. sexual sadism d. exhibitionism

e. all of the above 3415. Ramsay Hunt syndrome is associated with lesion mainly in the cranial nerve type: a. X (vagus) b. VII (facial) c. XI (accessory) d. IX (glossopharyngeal) e. none of the above 3416. 72 year old woman has shingles, she develops sudden, severe facial weakness and pain, the most likely diagnosis is: a. Reye's syndrome b. Reiter's syndrome c. Behcet's syndrome d. Ramsay Hunt syndrome e. Guillain Barre syndrome 3417. The most common presentation of bladder carcinoma is: a. pain b. hematuria c. irritation d. no symptoms e. clot retention 3418. Adenomyosis (endometrial glands found within the myometrium which occurs in parous women 40-50 years old) is NOT associated with: a. dyscoria

b. dyschezia c. dypareunia d. menorrhagia e. dysmenorrhea 3419. Testicular feminization syndrome is associated with: a. infertility b. short stature c. presence of ovaries d. normal male phenotype e. normal female karyotype 3420. Which of the following is a risk factor for ovarian carcinoma? a. nulliparity b. late menopause c. Caucasian race d. positive family history e. all of the above 3421. Which of the following is a complication of cesarean section? a. infection b. hemorrhage c. lacerations of the uterus d. subsequent rupture of the uterus e. all of the above 3422. Social inhibition, timidity and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation are characteristics of personality disorder type:

a. avoidant b. paranoid c. dependent d. antisocial e. borderline 3423. The percentage of the population with the Gilbert's syndrome is: a. 1% b. 3% c. 7% d. 16% e. 23% 3424. If one of the parents has Huntington's disease, the risk of developing the disorder for their children is one in: a. 2 b. 30 c. 50 d. 75 e. 100 3425. The average daily caloric requirement for young people (in kcal/day) is: a. 1100 for females and 1500 for males b. 2000 for females and 2700 for males c. 3200 for females and 3800 for males d. 4100 for females and 4500 for males

e. 5200 for females and 5600 for males Sample questions 3401 to 3425 of 9515

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3426. The incidence of thalassemia is highest among: a. Asians b. Afro-Americans c. Native Indians d. South Americans e. Mediterranean decent 3427. Which of the following cancers is/are more common in Caucasians than in African-Americans? a. oral b. gastric c. laryngeal d. esophageal e. bladder and renal 3428. Nulliparity is associated with lower incidence of: a. osteoporosis

b. breast cancer c. ovarian cancer d. endometrial cancer e. pelvic inflammatory disease 3429. Following are characteristics of carcinoid syndrome (serotoninsecreting, argentaffin cell tumor), EXCEPT: a. diarrhea/abdominal pain b. bronchoconstriction/dyspnea/wheezing c. cutaneous flushing d. right sided cardiac valve disease e. increased urinary vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) 3430. Which of the following medications is contraindicated in glaucoma? a. diazepam b. epinephrine c. pilocarpine d. timolol maleate e. carbonic anhydrase inhibitors 3431. (Bamboo spine) is a late radiographic sign of: a. psoriatic arthritis b. osteoarthritis c. rheumatoid arthritis d. ankylosing spondylitis e. gouty arthritis 3432. (Wrist drop) is associated with the injury to which of the peripheral

nerves? a. sciatic b. median c. ulnar d. radial e. peroneal 3433. Capillary hemangioma (strawberry nevus or birthmark) is usually treated with: a. fluorouracil (5-FU) b. surgical excision c. steroid creams d. radiotherapy e. none of the above 3434. Frohlich's syndrome is associated with amenorrhea and: a. galactorrhea b. gigantism / acromegaly c. postpartum hemorrhage / loss of pubic hair d. obesity / hirsutism / adipose tissue deposits e. sterility / headache / optic atrophy 3435. Chiari Frommel's syndrome is associated with amenorrhea and: a. galactorrhea b. gigantism / acromegaly c. postpartum hemorrhage / loss of pubic hair d. obesity / hirsutism / osteoporosis

e. sterility / headache / optic atrophy 3436. Sheehan's syndrome (pituitary necrosis) is associated with amenorrhea and: a. galactorrhea b. gigantism / acromegaly c. postpartum hemorrhage / loss of pubic hair d. obesity / hirsutism / hypertension e. sterility / headache / optic atrophy 3437. Basophilic adenoma of pituitary (Cushing's disease) is associated with amenorrhea and: a. galactorrhea b. gigantism / acromegaly c. postpartum hemorrhage / loss of pubic hair d. obesity / hirsutism / hypertension / osteoporosis e. sterility / headache / optic atrophy 3438. Acidophilic adenoma of pituitary is associated with amenorrhea and: a. galactorrhea / uterine atony b. acromegaly / gigantism / bitemporal hemianopsia c. postpartum hemorrhage / loss of pubic hair d. obesity / hirsutism / osteoporosis e. sterility / headache / optic atrophy 3439. Chromophobe adenoma of the pituitary is most likely to cause amenorrhea and: a. hirsutism / osteosarcoma

b. increased libido / hypotension c. postpartum hemorrhage / cardiomegaly d. gigantism / acromegaly / bitemporal hemianopsia e. hyperprolactinemia / persistent lactation / uterine atony 3440. Which of the following types of abortions is associated with high incidence of disseminated intravascular coagulation? a. missed abortion b. inevitable abortion c. habitual abortion d. incomplete abortion e. complete abortion 3441. At the end of third month of gestation, the fetus weighs: a. 4 grams b. 14 grams c. 140 grams d. 600 grams e. 1000 grams 3442. Podophyllin is contraindicated in pregnancy and used for treatment of lesions smaller than 2 cm caused by: a. treponema pallidum b. herpesvirus hominis type 1 c. herpesvirus hominis type 2 d. human papilloma virus e. herpes zoster virus

3443. The most common cause of herpes genitalis is: a. Epstein Barr b. herpesvirus hominis type 1 c. herpesvirus hominis type 2 d. human papilloma virus e. herpes zoster virus 3444. Following are risk factors for endometrial carcinoma, EXCEPT: a. obesity b. diabetes mellitus c. hypertension d. prolonged use of estrogens e. prolonged use of oral contraceptives 3445. Following are absolute contraindications for birth control pills, EXCEPT: a. coronary artery disease b. diabetes mellitus c. impaired hepatic function d. thromboembolic disease e. breast cancer 3446. The initial treatment of choriocarcinoma is: a. estrogens b. tamoxifen c. methotrexate d. radiotherapy

e. hysterectomy 3447. Which of the following is used to confirm the diagnosis of gonorrhea? a. urinalysis b. Frei test c. Papanicolau smear d. darkfield examination e. Thayer Martin medium 3448. The most common complication of ovarian cyst is: a. rupture b. torsion c. intestinal obstruction d. peritonitis e. malignant transformation 3449. Rectal strictures may be found in females and homosexual males with: a. genital warts b. lymphogranuloma venereum c. chancroid d. gonorrhea e. granuloma inguinale 3450. Donovan bodies are found in: a. syphilis b. lymphogranuloma venereum

c. chancroid d. gonorrhea e. granuloma inguinale Sample questions 3426 to 3450 of 9515

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3451. White cheesy or curd like, adherent vaginal discharge is seen in: a. gonorrhea b. genital candidiasis c. trichomoniasis d. syphilis e. granuloma inguinale 3452. Green-yellow/frothy/malodorous vaginal discharge is most likely to be caused by: a. gonorrhea b. genital candidiasis c. trichomoniasis d. syphilis e. granuloma inguinale

3453. The incidence of appendiceal perforation in children with acute appendicitis is: a. 2% b. 5% c. 10% d. 15% e. 40% 3454. Aortoiliac occlusive disease (LeRiche's syndrome) is best diagnosed by: a. ultrasound b. aortography c. abdominal X ray d. aortic wall biopsy e. abdominal CT scan 3455. The incidence of colorectal carcinoma in patients with familial polyposis is: a. 10% b. 30% c. 50% d. 80% e. 100% 3456. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome may be caused by: a. amantidine b. levodopa c. bromocriptine

d. dantrolene e. tricyclic antidepressants 3457. Mortality rate for neuroleptic malignant syndrome is about: a. 1% b. 5% c. 10% d. 20% e. 40% 3458. Following are drugs used in treatment of Parkinson's disease, EXCEPT: a. benztropine / cycrimine b. amitriptyline / imipramine c. bromocriptine / ethiopropazine d. trihexyphenidyl / biperiden e. levodopa / chlorphenoxamine 3459. The drug of choice for pneumocystis carinii pneumonitis (pneumocytosis) is: a. corticosteroids b. clindamycin c. pyrimethamine d. trimethoprim sulphamethoxazole e. tetracycline 3460. Rabies immune globulin is recommended for all: a. close personal contacts with hepatitis A

b. health care personnel c. pregnant women d. individuals bitten by wild animals e. individuals with meningococcal meningitis 3461. Slow/deep respiration (Kussmaul breathing) is a characteristic of: a. cystic fibrosis b. bronchial asthma c. diabetic ketoacidosis d. respiratory distress syndrome e. chronic obstructive lung disease 3462. Shyness/timidity/loneliness/social discomfort/fear of rejection are seen in personality disorder type: a. avoidant b. paranoid c. dependent d. antisocial e. borderline 3463. Which of the following personality disorders occurs almost exclusively in women? a. avoidant b. histerionic (hysterical) c. dependent d. schizotypal e. passive - aggressive

3464. Morphea (dermal fibrosis producing plaques of thickened skin) is associated with: a. dermatomyositis (polymyositis) b. polyarteritis nodosa c. rheumatoid arthritis d. scleroderma (systemic sclerosis) e. systemic lupus erythematosus 3465. The most common cancer in Caucasians is the cancer of: a. lung b. colon c. skin d. liver e. kidney 3466. Increased human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) after pregnancy may suggest the diagnosis of: a. carcinoma of the cervix b. uterine choriocarcinoma/hydatidiform mole c. carcinoma of the uterine corpus d. granulosa cell tumor of the ovary e. anencephalic pregnancy 3467. Sepsis (septicemia) in abruptio placentae is usually due to: a. listeria monocytogen b. clostridium perfringens c. clostridium difficile

d. staphylococcus vaginalis e. neisseria gonorrheae 3468. Dilatation and curettage (D and C) is most useful in women with: a. vulvar pruritus b. postcoital bleeding c. abdominal distention d. postmenopausal bleeding e. postcoital abdominal pain 3469. Fetal meningomyelocele is best detected by: a. amniotic fluid alpha fetoprotein (AFT) b. amniotic fluid chromosomal study c. maternal urinary estirol d. fetal blood sampling e. none of the above 3470. The main symptom in children with methemoglobulinemia is hypoxia and: a. abdominal distention b. skin rash c. diarrhea d. cyanosis e. edema 3471. In acute adrenal insufficiency (Addisonian crisis), positive blood culture usually indicates the presence of: a. streptococci

b. staphylococci c. meningococci d. gonococci e. haemophilus influenzae 3472. Following are associated with acute adrenal insufficiency (Addisonian crisis), EXCEPT: a. lymphadenopathy b. high fever c. petechiae d. abnormal skin pigmentation e. hyperglycemia/alkalosis 3473. Subclavian artery compression in cervical rib compression is ruled out by: a. Brodie Trendelenburg test b. Allen test c. Schwartz test d. Adson's test e. Tinel's test 3474. The most common nosocomial infection is: a. urinary tract infection b. surgical wound infection c. respiratory tract infection d. hepatobiliary tract infection e. gastrointestinal tract infection

3475. Maternal tetracycline therapy is associated with fetal: a. blindness b. gray baby syndrome c. aplastic anemia d. teeth discoloration e. kernicterus Sample questions 3451 to 3475 of 9515

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3476. Gray baby syndrome is a circulatory collapse that can occur in premature and newborn infants receiving large doses of: a. tetracycline b. streptomycin c. griseofulvin d. erythromycin e. chloramphenicol 3477. Which of the following hepatic tumors occurs almost exclusively in men? a. hemangioma b. adenoma

c. focal nodular hyperplasia d. primary liver cancer e. none of the above 3478. Tardive dyskinesia (more common in women/can be treated with reserpine) may occur after at least 6 months of treatment with: a. lithium b. tricyclic antidepressants c. anxiolytic agents (sedatives) d. antipsychotics (neuroleptics) e. carbamazepine 3479. Familial Mediterranean fever is caused by: a. virus b. anaerobic bacillus c. rickettsia d. spirochete e. uncertain etiology 3480. Anthrax is caused by: a. aerobic bacilli b. anaerobic bacilli c. gram positive cocci d. gram positive bacilli e. spirochetes 3481. Leptospirosis is also known as Weil's disease or icterohemorrhagic fever which is caused by:

a. spirochetes b. anaerobic bacilli c. rickettsias d. parasites e. viruses 3482. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be seen in Reiter's syndrome? a. stomatitis b. carditis/aortic regurgitation c. dactylitis (sausage digits) d. hepatosplenomegaly e. keratoderma blennorhagica 3483. Following are features of Gaucher's disease (increased cerebroside deposition/splenomegaly), EXCEPT: a. hepatomegaly/protuberant abdomen b. Gaucher's cells in marrow/seizures c. bone and joint pain/anemia/lethargy d. increased serum cholesterol e. increased serum acid phosphatase/thrombocytopenia 3484. Antidote for dipyridamole (persantine) overdose is: a. atropine b. aminophylline c. nitrate d. naloxolone

e. chlorpromazine 3485. Wegener's granulomatosis is best treated with: a. amantidine b. azathioprine c. prednisone d. thiazide e. cyclophosphamide 3486. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be involved in Wegener's granulomatosis? a. spleen b. kidney c. middle ear d. sinuse e. lung 3487. TORCH syndrome (TORCH complex) refers to all of the following disorders, EXCEPT: a. toxoplasmosis b. rubella c. cytomegalic inclusion disease d. infectious mononucleosis e. syphilis/herpes simplex virus 3488. The most important initial diagnostic procedure for a one year old child with seizures is: a. EEG

b. arterial blood gases c. CT scan of the head d. spinal tap e. brain X ray 3489. Simple febrile seizures (febrile convulsion syndrome) most commonly occur between ages: a. 2 weeks to 2 months b. 2 to 6 months c. 6 months to 3 years d. 5 to 10 years e. 10 to 15 years 3490. Flexion deformity of the proximal interphalangeal joint is seen in: a. Boxer's fracture b. Dupuytren's contracture c. Mallet's finger d. carpal tunnel syndrome e. Boutonniere deformity 3491. Patent ductus arteriosus is kept open by: a. histamine b. indomethacin c. catecholamines d. acetylcholine e. prostaglandins 3492. Following promote the closer of patent ductus arteriosus, EXCEPT:

a. histamine b. indomethacin c. catecholamines d. acetylcholine e. prostaglandins 3493. In term infants, patent ductus arteriosus usually closes: a. immediately after birth b. 24 hours after birth c. 1 to 3 days after birth d. 8 to 15 days after birth e. during the last month of pregnancy 3494. Pheochromocytoma/neuroblastoma are associated with increased urinary: a. 5 hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5 HIAA) b. vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) c. urobilinogen d. aldosterone e. hydroxyproline 3495. The most common soft tissue malignant tumor in adults is: a. liposarcoma b. fibrosarcoma c. neurofibrosarcoma d. rhabdomyosarcoma

e. synoviosarcoma 3496. The most common soft tissue malignant tumor in children is: a. liposarcoma b. fibrosarcoma c. neurofibrosarcoma d. rhabdomyosarcoma e. synoviosarcoma 3497. The usual site of Ewing's sarcoma is: a. periosteum b. epiphysis c. metaphysis d. diaphysis e. articular cartilage 3498. Bone X ray in bronchogenic carcinoma characteristically shows: a. aneurysmal bone cyst b. hypertrophic osteoarthropathy c. linear calcifications d. bony erosions/osteophytes e. generalized demineralization 3499. The initial complaint of patients with Paget's disease of bone (osteitis deformans) usually is: a. deafness b. palpitations

c. bone pain d. bowing of legs e. paraplegia 3500. Following are causes or predisposing factors for osteoporosis, EXCEPT: a. rheumatoid arthritis b. Cushing's syndrome c. homocystinuria d. steroid therapy e. multiparity Sample questions 3476 to 3500 of 9515